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Is meaning located in the brain?

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One of the clearest and most compelling arguments against materialism is that it is unable to account for the simple fact that our thoughts possess a meaning in their own right. As philosopher Ed Feser puts it in an online post entitled, Some brief arguments for dualism, Part I:

Thoughts and the like possess inherent meaning or intentionality; brain processes, like ink marks, sound waves, and the like, are utterly devoid of any inherent meaning or intentionality; so thoughts and the like cannot possibly be identified with brain processes.

The argument seems especially convincing when we consider abstract concepts. Consider the famous line, “Honesty is a greatly overrated virtue,” from Jane Austen’s Pride and Prejudice. It seems preposterous to suppose that a concrete entity like a set of neurons, or even a neural process, could mean “honesty,” “virtue,” or any of the other words in that memorable quote.

Now, however, the materialists are fighting back, and attempting to locate meaning in the brain itself. A team of cognitive neuroscientists claims to have identified the areas of the brain that are responsible for processing the meanings (and not just the sounds) of specific words. Their findings were presented at the 2012 Society for the Neurobiology of Language Conference in San Sebastian, Spain. Presenting the team’s research findings, Joao Correia of Maastricht University told the conference that his team had decided to address the vital question: “How do we represent the meaning of words, independent of the language we are listening to?” A report in New Scientist magazine entitled,
“Mind-reading scan locates site of meaning in the brain”
(16 November 2012) by Douglas Heaven, takes up the story:

To begin the hunt, Correia and his colleagues used an fMRI scanner to study the brain activity of eight bilingual volunteers as they listened to the names of four animals, bull, horse, shark and duck, spoken in English.

The team monitored patterns of neural activity in the left anterior temporal cortex – known to be involved in a range of semantic tasks – and trained an algorithm to identify which word a participant had heard based on the pattern of activity.

Since the team wanted to pinpoint activity related to meaning, they picked words that were as similar as possible – all four contain one syllable and belong to the concept of animals. They also chose words that would have been learned at roughly the same time of life and took a similar time for the brain to process.

They then tested whether the differences in brain activity were related to the sound of the word or its meaning by testing whether the algorithm could identify the correct animal while the participants listened to the Dutch version of the word.

The system was still able to identify which animal had been named, despite being trained with patterns generated for English words. For example, the word “horse” and its Dutch equivalent “paard” gave rise to the same brain pattern, suggesting that the activity represented the word’s meaning – the concept of a horse…

“This type of pattern recognition approach is a very exciting scientific tool for investigating how and where knowledge is represented in the brain,” says Zoe Woodhead at University College London, who wasn’t involved in the study. “Words that mean the same thing in different languages activate the same set of neurons encoding that concept, regardless of the fact that the two words look and sound completely different.”

As resolutions in brain imaging improve, Correia predicts that a greater number of words will be predicted from brain activity alone. In principle, it might even be possible to identify whole sentences in real time, he says…

So, have Correia and his team located the meaning of words in the brain? Summing up their research findings, Correia et al. wrote in the Abstract of their report (delivered on Friday October 26th, 2012, at 2:20 p.m., at Slide Session B; see p. 12 of the Conference Report):

The results of our discrimination analysis show that word decoding involves a distributed network of brain regions consistent with the proposed ‘dual-stream model’ (Hickok and Poeppel, 2007). The results of our generalization analysis highlights a focal and specific role of a left anterior temporal area in semantic/concept decoding. Together, these distributed and focal brain activity patterns subserve the extraction of abstract semantic concepts from acoustically diverse English and Dutch words during bilingual speech comprehension.

I had never heard of the Dual Stream model until I came across this report, and I suspect most of my readers won’t have heard of it, either. Professor Greg Hickok helpfully explains the model in a post entitled, Dual Stream Model of Speech/Language Processing: Tractography Evidence (Wednesday, December 3, 2008), on a blog called Talking Brains – News and views on the neural organization of language which he and co-author Professor David Poeppel moderate:

The Dual Stream model of speech/language processing holds that there are two functionally distinct computational/neural networks that process speech/language information, one that interfaces sensory/phonological networks with conceptual-semantic systems, and one that interfaces sensory/phonological networks with motor-articulatory systems (Hickok & Poeppel, 2000, 2004, 2007). We have laid out our current best guess as to the neural architecture of these systems in our 2007 paper…

[A diagram illustrating the model is included in the post.]

It is worth pointing out that under reasonable assumptions some version of a dual stream model has to be right. If we accept (i) that sensory/phonological representations make contact both with conceptual systems and with motor systems, and (ii) that conceptual systems and motor-speech systems are not the same thing, then it follows that there must be two processing streams, one leading to conceptual systems, the other leading to motor systems. This is not a new idea, of course. It has obvious parallels to research in the primate visual system, and (well before the visual folks came up with the idea) it was a central feature of Wernicke’s model of the functional anatomy of language. In other words, not only does the model make sense for speech/language processing, it appears to be a “general principle of sensory system organization” (Hickok & Poeppel, 2007, p. 401) and it has stood the test of time.

The abstract of Hickok and Poeppel’s original 2007 paper, The cortical organization of speech processing (Nature Reviews Neuroscience, 8 (5), 393-402 DOI: 10.1038/nrn2113) is even more succinct:

Despite decades of research, the functional neuroanatomy of speech processing has been difficult to characterize. A major impediment to progress may have been the failure to consider task effects when mapping speech-related processing systems. We outline a dual-stream model of speech processing that remedies this situation. In this model, a ventral stream processes speech signals for comprehension, and a dorsal stream maps acoustic speech signals to frontal lobe articulatory networks. The model assumes that the ventral stream is largely bilaterally organized – although there are important computational differences between the left- and right-hemisphere systems – and that the dorsal stream is strongly left-hemisphere dominant.

So much for the theoretical background. What we need to ask ourselves now is: what have Correia and his team actually established?

The research findings of Correia et al. certainly lend support to the idea that the left anterior temporal cortex is involved in decoding words in sentences in a way that assists with identifying the meanings of these words, rather than their sounds. However, I think it would be an unwarranted leap to conclude that this part of the brain plays a special role in identifying the actual meaning of a word. Instead, what I would propose is that this region plays a subsidiary but nonetheless role, preparatory to the activity of locating the meaning of a word.

What I am tentatively suggesting is that the left anterior temporal cortex may store collocations (or frequent co-occurrences of words), by means of neural connections whose strength corresponds to the relative frequency with which two words are found to occur together. In other words, this part of the brain doesn’t store the meanings of words, but the frequency with which a word having a certain meaning (whether in English or Dutch) is likely to be used with certain other words. If you can identify one word in a sentence, this part of the brain would definitely help in identifying the other words that it is likely to be used with – irrespective of how those words sound in the two languages. That’s why it’s so useful for semantic decoding.

Even when individuals are only exposed to single words (as in the experiment conducted by Correia et al.), their brains would naturally search for related words, because human beings are, after all, creatures who are designed to seek meanings. We can’t help it – that’s what we do, as rational animals. Moreover, we habitually tend to communicate with each other in whole sentences, not one-word utterances. So it is not surprising that the left anterior temporal cortex of these individuals was still activated.

By the way, for those who may be wondering, here is how Wikipedia defines a Collocation:

In corpus linguistics, collocation defines a sequence of words or terms that co-occur more often than would be expected by chance. In phraseology, collocation is a sub-type of phraseme. An example of a phraseological collocation (from Michael Halliday)is the expression strong tea. While the same meaning could be conveyed by the roughly equivalent powerful tea, this expression is considered incorrect by English speakers. Conversely, the corresponding expression for computer, powerful computers is preferred over strong computers. Phraseological collocations should not be confused with idioms, where meaning is derived, whereas collocations are mostly compositional.

I should note that English and Dutch are very similar languages – they’re practically sisters. What I would be interested to see is the results of research conducted on individuals who are bilingual in English and Japanese – whose grammar, collocations and idioms are very different from each other. It is doubtful whether researchers would observe the same neat one-to-one mapping between the meanings of English and Japanese words as they discovered between English and Dutch words.

To sum up: it is simply nonsensical to assert that the brain, or any other material entity, could possibly store the meaning of a word – particularly an abstract word. Meaning is not a physical property as such. It is perfectly reasonable, however, to claim that the brain contains centers that not only decode sounds into the words of our mother tongue (or a second language), but also enable us to predict, from having heard one word, which other words it is likely to be associated with. It is not surprising, either, that closely related languages like English and Dutch would generate much the same pattern of predictions regarding what word will come next, even if the word sounds different in the two languages.

Well, that’s my two cents. But I may be wrong. What do readers think?

Comments
Bornagain77: You go on (at length!) about quantum stuff without ever explaining how this is reflected in macroscopic behaviour. Eg: what is the connection between entanglement (your obsession) and consciousness ? And please, no metacafe links, they dont do your cause any credit.Graham2
December 6, 2012
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...small particles display Brownian motion, but humans don't vibrate.
Sure they do. It's just that your eyeballs vibrate as well so you don't see it.Mung
December 6, 2012
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But that means I’m not a naturalist, by Feser’s criteria? The other naturalists better not find out about this — they’ll kick me out of the club for sure!
Dennett arguably would. So would Alex Rosenberg. The list wouldn't stop there. See, the problem here is - and I have a sneaky suspicion you're aware of it - 'naturalist' doesn't mean much of anything anymore. Rather like how 'materialist' used to mean something very particular - a commitment to the good ol' classical, Laplacian model of the world - right up until that model was junked. (Not to mention numerous changes that happened prior to and since that time.) I've argued about this on here in the past. Go look up naturalist in the SEP, and the whole thing starts off with 'Yeah, well, there's not really any good definition of this aside from a commitment to atheism and a dislike of religion'.nullasalus
December 6, 2012
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graham2 you state:
You seem to have a cartoon-simple idea that if quarks can do it, we can too.
Well actually the experiment I cited by Dr. Zeilinger involved photons, not quarks, and no I do not hold the 'cartoon simple idea' that if photons can do something then we can to, that would be YOUR "cartoon simple" position within materialism. In fact, I hold the exact opposite view that I can do things photons cannot possibly do, i.e. such as in the example I cited, photons cannot make decisions that effect reality whereas I can make decisions that effect reality, and the experiment confirms exactly that position! Why are you being 'anti-science?' notes:
"It will remain remarkable, in whatever way our future concepts may develop, that the very study of the external world led to the scientific conclusion that the content of the consciousness is the ultimate universal reality" - Eugene Wigner - (Remarks on the Mind-Body Question, Eugene Wigner, in Wheeler and Zurek, p.169) 1961 - received Nobel Prize in 1963 for 'Quantum Symmetries') “No, I regard consciousness as fundamental. I regard matter as derivative from consciousness. We cannot get behind consciousness. Everything that we talk about, everything that we regard as existing, postulates consciousness.” (Max Planck, as cited in de Purucker, Gottfried. 1940. The Esoteric Tradition. California: Theosophical University Press, ch. 13). “Consciousness cannot be accounted for in physical terms. For consciousness is absolutely fundamental. It cannot be accounted for in terms of anything else.” (Schroedinger, Erwin. 1984. “General Scientific and Popular Papers,” in Collected Papers, Vol. 4. Vienna: Austrian Academy of Sciences. Friedr. Vieweg & Sohn, Braunschweig/Wiesbaden. p. 334.) A neurosurgeon confronts the non-material nature of consciousness - December 2011 Excerpted quote: To me one thing that has emerged from my experience and from very rigorous analysis of that experience over several years, talking it over with others that I respect in neuroscience, and really trying to come up with an answer, is that consciousness outside of the brain is a fact. It’s an established fact. And of course, that was a hard place for me to get, coming from being a card-toting reductive materialist over decades. It was very difficult to get to knowing that consciousness, that there’s a soul of us that is not dependent on the brain. https://uncommondescent.com/intelligent-design/he-said-it-a-neurosurgeon-confronts-the-non-material-nature-of-consciousness/ Darwinian Psychologist David Barash Admits the Seeming Insolubility of Science's "Hardest Problem" Excerpt: 'But the hard problem of consciousness is so hard that I can't even imagine what kind of empirical findings would satisfactorily solve it. In fact, I don't even know what kind of discovery would get us to first base, not to mention a home run.' David Barash - Materialist/Atheist Darwinian Psychologist David Chalmers on Consciousness - video http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=NK1Yo6VbRoo Neuroscientist: “The Most Seamless Illusions Ever Created” - April 2012 Excerpt: We have so much confidence in our materialist assumptions (which are assumptions, not facts) that something like free will is denied in principle. Maybe it doesn’t exist, but I don’t really know that. Either way, it doesn’t matter because if free will and consciousness are just an illusion, they are the most seamless illusions ever created. Film maker James Cameron wishes he had special effects that good. Matthew D. Lieberman - neuroscientist - materialist - UCLA professor Quantum Entangled Consciousness - Life After Death - Stuart Hameroff - video http://vimeo.com/39982578 Brain ‘entanglement’ could explain memories - January 2010 Excerpt: In both cases, the researchers noticed that the voltage of the electrical signal in groups of neurons separated by up to 10 millimetres sometimes rose and fell with exactly the same rhythm. These patterns of activity, dubbed “coherence potentials”, often started in one set of neurons, only to be mimicked or “cloned” by others milliseconds later. They were also much more complicated than the simple phase-locked oscillations and always matched each other in amplitude as well as in frequency. (Perfect clones) “The precision with which these new sites pick up on the activity of the initiating group is quite astounding – they are perfect clones,” says Plen http://www.newscientist.com/article/dn18371-brain-entanglement-could-explain-memories.html
Finding quantum entanglement in the brain (as well as in every protein and DNA molecule) is very interesting since:
Looking Beyond Space and Time to Cope With Quantum Theory – (Oct. 28, 2012) Excerpt: To derive their inequality, which sets up a measurement of entanglement between four particles, the researchers considered what behaviours are possible for four particles that are connected by influences that stay hidden and that travel at some arbitrary finite speed. Mathematically (and mind-bogglingly), these constraints define an 80-dimensional object. The testable hidden influence inequality is the boundary of the shadow this 80-dimensional shape casts in 44 dimensions. The researchers showed that quantum predictions can lie outside this boundary, which means they are going against one of the assumptions. Outside the boundary, either the influences can’t stay hidden, or they must have infinite speed.,,, The remaining option is to accept that (quantum) influences must be infinitely fast,,, “Our result gives weight to the idea that quantum correlations somehow arise from outside spacetime, in the sense that no story in space and time can describe them,” says Nicolas Gisin, Professor at the University of Geneva, Switzerland,,, http://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2012/10/121028142217.htm
Music and verse:
"Hallelujah!" Random Act of Culture Opera Company of Philadelphia http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=wp_RHnQ-jgU Psalm 139:7-14 Where can I go from your Spirit? Where can I flee from your presence? If I go up to the heavens, you are there; if I make my bed in the depths, you are there. If I rise on the wings of the dawn, if I settle on the far side of the sea, even there your hand will guide me, your right hand will hold me fast. If I say, “Surely the darkness will hide me and the light become night around me,” even the darkness will not be dark to you; the night will shine like the day, for darkness is as light to you. For you created my inmost being; you knit me together in my mother’s womb. I praise you because I am fearfully and wonderfully made; your works are wonderful, I know that full well.
bornagain77
December 6, 2012
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If we're taking "derived intentionality" and "intrinsic intentionality" in the Dennett/Searle senses -- where "derived intentionality" is just, we might say, 'as-if' intentionality and intrinsic intentionality is the Genuine Article, then oh yes, I most definitely think that teleological intentionality is intrinsic to living things in general, and that discursive or semantic intentionality is intrinsic to rational beings. But that means I'm not a naturalist, by Feser's criteria? The other naturalists better not find out about this -- they'll kick me out of the club for sure!Kantian Naturalist
December 6, 2012
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Well then, since I do think that teleology and intentionality are real, I suppose I’m not a materialist.
It's a question of what you mean by 'real'. A lot of materialists will say 'Oh sure, they're real' - but they mean exclusively derived intentionality rather than intrinsic. Same with teleology. Now, if you think they're intrinsic? Yeah, by Feser's measure, you're not a materialist. In fact, you're not even a naturalist.nullasalus
December 6, 2012
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Bornagain77 #70: The claim that past material states determine future conscious choices (determinism) is falsified by the fact that present conscious choices effect past material states So something I do now can affect what happened in the past ? I really think you need to rethink the connection between sub-atomic behaviour and macroscopic behaviour. Sub-atomic behaviour and macroscopic behaviour are different things. The former is often non-intutitive but the latter is a statistical sum of this, they are different things. You seem to have a cartoon-simple idea that if quarks can do it, we can too. Eg: small particles display Brownian motion, but humans dont vibrate.Graham2
December 6, 2012
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At the same time, you seem to think that intrinsic/original intentionality being present in the physical is some form of materialism – whereas Ed is pointing out that the material world, as pictured by the materialists, is necessary devoid not only of teleology of the relevant sort, but also intentionality and ‘meaning’. So, a materialist who believes that meaning is intrinsic in matter or some forms of matter – ‘this brain state/series of states is intrinsically about dogs’ – would not be a materialist after all.
Well then, since I do think that teleology and intentionality are real, I suppose I'm not a materialist. :)Kantian Naturalist
December 6, 2012
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Actually, for Vjtorley, I think I know of a way to make it clearer. You're aware that, metaphysically/philosophically, Aristotle and Aquinas saw the material world differently than Descartes and moderns, right? Even when considering things devoid of minds, like the rock cycle, they had pretty different views of what those things were - and that continues now.nullasalus
December 6, 2012
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So the you inventing in your brain is no different from your brain inventing in your brain? Why didn't your brain just say your brain invents in your brain instead of confusing matters with the mind/brain dichotomy? notes: The claim that past material states determine future conscious choices (determinism) is falsified by the fact that present conscious choices effect past material states: In other words, If my conscious choices really are just merely the result of whatever state the material particles in my brain happen to be in (deterministic) how in blue blazes are my choices instantaneously effecting the state of material particles into the past? Such as this following experiment illustrates: Quantum physics mimics spooky action into the past – April 23, 2012 Excerpt: The authors experimentally realized a “Gedankenexperiment” called “delayed-choice entanglement swapping”, formulated by Asher Peres in the year 2000. Two pairs of entangled photons are produced, and one photon from each pair is sent to a party called Victor. Of the two remaining photons, one photon is sent to the party Alice and one is sent to the party Bob. Victor can now choose between two kinds of measurements. If he decides to measure his two photons in a way such that they are forced to be in an entangled state, then also Alice’s and Bob’s photon pair becomes entangled. If Victor chooses to measure his particles individually, Alice’s and Bob’s photon pair ends up in a separable state. Modern quantum optics technology allowed the team to delay Victor’s choice and measurement with respect to the measurements which Alice and Bob perform on their photons. “We found that whether Alice’s and Bob’s photons are entangled and show quantum correlations or are separable and show classical correlations can be decided after they have been measured”, explains Xiao-song Ma, lead author of the study. According to the famous words of Albert Einstein, the effects of quantum entanglement appear as “spooky action at a distance”. The recent experiment has gone one remarkable step further. “Within a naïve classical world view, quantum mechanics can even mimic an influence of future actions on past events”, says Anton Zeilinger. http://phys.org/news/2012-04-quantum-physics-mimics-spooky-action.html I consider the preceding proof to be a great improvement on the 'uncertainty' argument from quantum mechanics for free will: Why Quantum Physics Ends the Free Will Debate - Michio Kaku - video http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=lFLR5vNKiSwbornagain77
December 6, 2012
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Its me. my brain. Or you, your brain, etc. Who else could it be ?Graham2
December 6, 2012
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Graham you state:
Meaning is something we invent in our brain, like beauty,
Exactly who is the 'we' doing the inventing in the brain?bornagain77
December 6, 2012
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Vjtorley,
So it seems Ed thinks it’s a knock-down argument against materialism. Part of the reason, as he goes on to say, is that modern materialists deny that material events (such as brain processes) are capable of having built-in teleological properties, whereas Aristotelians think that the teleological properties are an ontologically basic feature of living things, and of natural objects in general. But that isn’t all; as we’ve seen, Aristotle would say that a material object, having a determinate nature of its own, is incapable of knowing the natures of all kinds of bodies, whereas the human intellect is perfectly capable of grasping the nature of any and every kind of body. So even for a materialist who decides to accept teleology as a basic feature of material objects (as Aristotle did), the problem of meaning still remains.
I think the problem here is that you may be mixing up intention with intellect in a way Aristotle wouldn't. At the same time, you seem to think that intrinsic/original intentionality being present in the physical is some form of materialism - whereas Ed is pointing out that the material world, as pictured by the materialists, is necessary devoid not only of teleology of the relevant sort, but also intentionality and 'meaning'. So, a materialist who believes that meaning is intrinsic in matter or some forms of matter - 'this brain state/series of states is intrinsically about dogs' - would not be a materialist after all. Yes, even beyond that there's the consideration of the intellect, but that's an additional topic.nullasalus
December 6, 2012
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Meaning belongs to the world of consciousness and information and consciousness and information are ‘located’ in the highest dimension of all. I appreciate the (long) reply but does that mean anything ? Meaning is something we invent in our brain, like beauty, etc. As soon as someone invokes 'higher dimensions', 'vibrations', etc and especially, quantum mechanics, I get worried. If meaning, information etc are 'located' somewhere else (the soul? the mind ? a higher dimension ?) Can someone give even the slightest clue as to how our (material) brain can affect these and vice versa ?Graham2
December 6, 2012
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I am da Brain/sOul/Mind/Body.Mung
December 6, 2012
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Let’s than paraphrase this: Are we humans: a. A body with a soul? OR b. A soul with a body? To this: Are we: a. A brain with a mind, OR b. A mind with a brain This is the questionInVivoVeritas
December 6, 2012
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VJ:
First, it seems to me that your remarks only serve to discredit Cartesian dualism, which envisages the soul and body as distinct entities which are capable of interacting. There is indeed a real philosophical conundrum as to how unextended, which is quite distinct from my body, can nevertheless move my body. But not all dualists are Cartesians. An alternative (Aristotelian) view is that I am one being (a human person), who is capable of performing both material actions (e.g. digesting, sensing, imagining) and immaterial actions (e.g. reasoning, understanding, choosing).
I only have a moment - but I believe you'll find the discussion found at the following link very interesting, as it addresses remarkably similar themes. You'll recognize my comment above as adapted from a comment I made there. http://telicthoughts.com/id-the-ship-of-theseus-and-the-“mind-body-problem”/Reciprocating Bill
December 6, 2012
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Mung as to:
energy and mass both reduce to information
Here are my references:
How Teleportation Will Work - Excerpt: In 1993, the idea of teleportation moved out of the realm of science fiction and into the world of theoretical possibility. It was then that physicist Charles Bennett and a team of researchers at IBM confirmed that quantum teleportation was possible, but only if the original object being teleported was destroyed. --- As predicted, the original photon no longer existed once the replica was made. http://science.howstuffworks.com/teleportation1.htm Quantum Teleportation - IBM Research Page Excerpt: "it would destroy the original (photon) in the process,," http://researcher.ibm.com/view_project.php?id=2862 Unconditional Quantum Teleportation - abstract Excerpt: This is the first realization of unconditional quantum teleportation where every state entering the device is actually teleported,, http://www.sciencemag.org/cgi/content/abstract/282/5389/706 Ions have been teleported successfully for the first time by two independent research groups Excerpt: In fact, copying isn't quite the right word for it. In order to reproduce the quantum state of one atom in a second atom, the original has to be destroyed. This is unavoidable - it is enforced by the laws of quantum mechanics, which stipulate that you can't 'clone' a quantum state. In principle, however, the 'copy' can be indistinguishable from the original (that was destroyed),,, http://www.rsc.org/chemistryworld/Issues/2004/October/beammeup.asp Atom takes a quantum leap - 2009 Excerpt: Ytterbium ions have been 'teleported' over a distance of a metre.,,, "What you're moving is information, not the actual atoms," says Chris Monroe, from the Joint Quantum Institute at the University of Maryland in College Park and an author of the paper. But as two particles of the same type differ only in their quantum states, the transfer of quantum information is equivalent to moving the first particle to the location of the second. http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/news/2171769/posts
bornagain77
December 6, 2012
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mung you ask:
In what sense is mc^2 reducible to e?
Please note that I said "normally reduces" to energy: The reduction of matter to energy is comparatively easy to accomplish as is demonstrated in by nuclear/atomic bombs:
Atomic Bomb Explosion - video http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-22tna7KHzI 6.4 mg of mass converted to energy in Hiroshima A-bomb 4,400,000 Hiroshima A-bombs equivalent to one ounce of mass 1 drop of water equivalent to 10 Hiroshima A-bombs
Whereas to convert energy to matter is a very more difficult proposition:
Particle accelerators convert energy into subatomic particles, for example by colliding electrons and positrons. Some of the kinetic energy in the collision goes into creating new particles. It's not possible, however, to collect these newly created particles and assemble them into atoms, molecules and bigger (less microscopic) structures that we associate with 'matter' in our daily life. This is partly because in a technical sense, you cannot just create matter out of energy: there are various 'conservation laws' of electric charges, the number of leptons (electron-like particles) etc., which means that you can only create matter / anti-matter pairs out of energy. Anti-matter, however, has the unfortunate tendency to combine with matter and turn itself back into energy. Even though physicists have managed to safely trap a small amount of anti-matter using magnetic fields, this is not easy to do. Also, Einstein's equation, Energy = Mass x the square of the velocity of light, tells you that it takes a huge amount of energy to create matter in this way. The big accelerator at Fermilab can be a significant drain on the electricity grid in and around the city of Chicago, and it has produced very little matter. http://imagine.gsfc.nasa.gov/docs/ask_astro/answers/970724a.html Yet somehow shortly after the big bang, and in nucleosynthesis, serendipitously, all the pieces fell together to get atoms to form: Big Bang After its (The Big Bangs) initial expansion from a singularity, the Universe cooled sufficiently to allow energy to be converted into various subatomic particles, including protons, neutrons, and electrons. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Big_Bang The Elements: Forged in Stars - video http://www.metacafe.com/watch/4003861 "Dr. Michael Denton on Evidence of Fine-Tuning in the Universe" (Remarkable balance of various key elements for life) - podcast http://intelligentdesign.podomatic.com/entry/2012-08-21T14_43_59-07_00
bornagain77
December 6, 2012
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However, I believe that the gap between the physical and the semantic (which relates to what I call the “super-hard” problem of meaning) is even greater than that between the physical and the phenomenological (which forms the basis of the so-called “hard” problem of consciousness). The latter gap might be explained by positing a kind of property dualism, where physical events and phenomenological experiences mirror or correspond to each other. But it is not possible for the physical to mirror the semantic in a one-to-one fashion, whether at the type-type or token-token level. Not only is meaning irreducible to matter; matter doesn’t even track meaning.
It is a nice point, and one that bears emphasis, that how we end up treating sapience (our capacity for rational thought) and how we end up treating sentience (our capacity for conscious experience) needn't go together. There are at least two different mind-body problems (and, I think, more than that: see "The Mind-Body-Body Problem"). As for semantic meaning, I find a lot of value in Brandom's inferentialism, which basically takes inspiration from Sellars' "meaning as functional classification" account. Briefly, the idea here is that when we say: "Hund" means dog (in German), that's properly explicated as "Hund" (in German) and "dog" (in English) function in similar ways, within the overall economy of perception, thought, and action. So meanings need not be mysterious, and they needn't be material (in the narrow sense). We can preserve the Platonic insight that there's something fundamentally and pervasively wrong with reductive materialism (represented in his day by Anaxagoras and Empedocles) without any ratification of meaning as "intensional entities," as Meimong (and many others) were tempted to do. On this account of meaning, meanings are natural in the broad sense of "belonging the world of life, history, and becoming" without being identified with neurophysiological processes.
Consider the word “true.” There are an infinite number of propositions, even within a single field of inquiry such as arithmetic, which can be described as “true,” but there’s nothing in the brain corresponding to this infinite set.
The task of a fully adequate naturalism, as I understand it, is to take the transcendental description of "the Four Ms" (mind, meaning, morality, and modality) as our explanandum and "the Four Fs" (feeding, fighting, fleeing, and reproduction) as our explanans. Any naturalism which neglects the Ms will fail, and I don't mind conceding that that includes most of them. I'm a naturalist because I think that Dewey did a pretty good job of figuring out morality in naturalistic terms, and Sellars did a pretty good job of figuring out mind, meaning, and modality in naturalistic terms. The resulting pragmatic naturalism doesn't offer everything that Aristotelianism or Cartesianism offers, but it offers enough. Still, I'll concede that realism about sets is awfully tempting, and rejecting realism about sets has a price that I'm not entirely sure I'm willing to pay. I don't enough about philosophy of mathematics to say much more.Kantian Naturalist
December 6, 2012
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It seems basically right to me that it's a category mistake to think of semantic meaning as having spatio-temporal location in the way that concrete particulars do, but it seems to me that naturalism can accommodate this point perfectly well. I also don't think it's an objection to naturalism to point out that animals (including human animals) are, to use Dennett's terms, "semantic engines," even though their (and our) brains are only "syntactic engines". That might be an objection to reductionism, to be sure, but naturalism isn't committed to reductionism, either historically or conceptually -- "non-reductive naturalism" is not a contradiction in terms. This point has been in circulation at least since Strawson's Skepticism and Naturalism, and has recently been expanded upon quite nicely in two books edited by David Macarthur and Mario de Caro: Naturalism in Question and Naturalism and Normativity.
Science cannot explain what science presupposes. Science presupposes an orderly world in which things obey laws. It also presupposes that the existence of intelligent human beings who are able to formulate hypotheses about the world, reason about what these hypotheses entail and make predictions that can be tested empirically, and eventually arrive at true hypotheses after ruling out many false ones. How do we do all that? That’s an interesting question, but it’s not one that science has to answer. Science takes the existence of the external world as a “given”; the same surely goes for the human ability to reason.
I agree almost entirely. Our practices of empirical inquiry do take for granted 'presuppositions', which I construe as a transcendental argument for realism. That argument establishes that we are in reliable contact with objects and events, the existence and properties of which do not depend on our conceptions of them. Likewise, we can establish by transcendental description that we are self-conscious, rational beings. On the other hand, I don't see it as being beyond the purview of empirical inquiry to figure out how our interactions with reality are maintained, or how rationality functions. More generally, science doesn't establish that we perceive, judge, infer, and act, but it can say a great deal about how we do those things. We do need a distinction between transcendental descriptions and empirical explanations, but I don't see how that distinction is compatible with naturalism.Kantian Naturalist
December 6, 2012
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Hi Kantian Naturalist, Thanks for the link to the article on Neurophenomenology by Lutz and Thompson (Journal of Consciousness Studies, 10, No. 9–10, 2003, pp. 31–52). I haven't had time to digest it properly, but I noticed the following passage:
The 'explanatory gap' (in our usage) is the epistemological and methodological problem of how to relate first-person phenomenological accounts of experience to third-person cognitive-neuroscientific accounts... With respect to the explanatory gap, on the other hand, neurophenomenology does not aim to close the gap in the sense of ontological reduction, but rather to bridge the gap at epistemological and methodological levels by working to establish strong reciprocal constraints between phenomenological accounts of experience and cognitive-scientific accounts of mental processes. At the present time, neurophenomenology does not claim to have constructed such bridges, but only to have proposed a clear scientific research programme for making progress on that task. Whereas neuroscience to-date has focused mainly on the third-person, neurobehavioural side of the explanatory gap, leaving the first-person side to psychology and philosophy, neurophenomenology employs specific first-person methods in order to generate original first-person data, which can then be used to guide the study of physiological processes, as illustrated in a preliminary way by the pilot study... By thus enriching our understanding of both the first-person and third-person dimensions of consciousness, and creating experimental situations in which they reciprocally constrain each other, neurophenomenology aims to narrow the epistemological and methodological distance in cognitive neuroscience between subjective experience and brain processes. (Emphases mine - VJT.)
I have no quarrel with neurophenomenology as a research program. I also believe that first-person and third-person accounts of experience constrain each other, and that exploring these constraints can teach us a lot about consciousness. However, I believe that the gap between the physical and the semantic (which relates to what I call the "super-hard" problem of meaning) is even greater than that between the physical and the phenomenological (which forms the basis of the so-called "hard" problem of consciousness). The latter gap might be explained by positing a kind of property dualism, where physical events and phenomenological experiences mirror or correspond to each other. But it is not possible for the physical to mirror the semantic in a one-to-one fashion, whether at the type-type or token-token level. Not only is meaning irreducible to matter; matter doesn't even track meaning. Consider the word "true." There are an infinite number of propositions, even within a single field of inquiry such as arithmetic, which can be described as "true," but there's nothing in the brain corresponding to this infinite set.vjtorley
December 6, 2012
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2. energy and mass both reduce to information
i = -log e?Mung
December 6, 2012
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1. material particles/atoms (mass) normally reduces to energy (e=mc^2)
In what sense is mc^2 reducible to e?Mung
December 6, 2012
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Reciprocating Bill: Thank you for your comments. You wrote:
...[N]o one has the slightest notion of how a nonphysical mentality might instantiate intentional states (or consciousness, or selfhood, or agency, or meaning), or how one might go about investigating that question. How is a nonphysical mentality "about" something else? At least brain states offer many intriguing empirical hooks via the complex nature of sensory consciousness and representation that may or may not yield insights into this question as cognitive neuroscience progresses. There is no science of non-physical mentality, nor do i see how there could be one... The bottom line for me is that we simply don’t yet know how to talk about intentionality, regardless of ontology.
You seem to be arguing that there is a parity between materialism's failure to explain how a brain process could have inherent meaning and dualism's failure to explain how an immaterial soul could possess inherent meaning. You then add that at least materialist explanations are amenable to scientific explanations, whereas dualist explanations are not, since no-one can see a soul. First, it seems to me that your remarks only serve to discredit Cartesian dualism, which envisages the soul and body as distinct entities which are capable of interacting. There is indeed a real philosophical conundrum as to how unextended, which is quite distinct from my body, can nevertheless move my body. But not all dualists are Cartesians. An alternative (Aristotelian) view is that I am one being (a human person), who is capable of performing both material actions (e.g. digesting, sensing, imagining) and immaterial actions (e.g. reasoning, understanding, choosing). You might call this a kind of operational dualism, if you like, although it's properly known as hylomorphic dualism. On this view, meanings aren't stored inside some ghostly, immaterial entity that hovers above my head. Rather, it's just a basic fact about me, as a person, that I can grasp meanings. I do not store them anywhere, although you could say that my brain stores image schemata that allow me to identify the meanings of spoken words, when I hear them. Second, even for the Cartesian dualist, the problem of intentionality is nothing like as serious as it is for the materialist. Here's why. Material objects already have a nature of their own, that can be described in terms of their fixed, built-in tendencies or dispositions to behave in certain ways. The problem here is that semantic meaning is not, and cannot be, a material property as such. There is an unbridgeable gap between physical and semantic properties. With an immaterial mind, on the other hand, no such problem arises. Why? Because it doesn't have a determinate nature of its own, apart from its ability to grasp the meanings of various kinds of things. Its nature is wholly constituted by that ability. Thus for Descartes, the defining property of mind is thought, just as the defining property of matter is extension. Asking how the mind thinks and understands meaning is like asking how matter is extended. It just is. That ability is what makes it a mind. Third, I put it to you that science can never explain everything about reality. Here's why. Science cannot explain what science presupposes. Science presupposes an orderly world in which things obey laws. It also presupposes that the existence of intelligent human beings who are able to formulate hypotheses about the world, reason about what these hypotheses entail and make predictions that can be tested empirically, and eventually arrive at true hypotheses after ruling out many false ones. How do we do all that? That's an interesting question, but it's not one that science has to answer. Science takes the existence of the external world as a "given"; the same surely goes for the human ability to reason. I hope that helps.vjtorley
December 6, 2012
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Hi nullasalus, Thanks for your post. You wrote:
Ed's argument against 'locating meaning in the brain' isn't an empirical challenge, it's a metaphysical one.
I agree. That's why at the end of my post, I described the materialist assertion that meaning is located in the brain as not merely false, but nonsensical:
To sum up: it is simply nonsensical to assert that the brain, or any other material entity, could possibly store the meaning of a word – particularly an abstract word. Meaning is not a physical property as such.
You then added:
Taking brains or neurons or physical things to have intrinsic meaning rather than derived meaning would mean Aristotle is right and materialists / people who subscribe to a mechanistic view of mind/nature, are wrong.
There are a few points I'd like to make here: 1. Thoughts have intrinsic meaning. Things like words and pictures have a derived meaning: their meaning is conferred on them by us. But neural processes don't have any kind of meaning, either intrinsic or derived. 2. I'm not aware of any passage in Aristotle where he imputes intrinsic meaning to brain processes. Indeed, he demonstrates in De Anima III.4 that the intellect is immaterial, when he argues that since the mind (or intellect) is capable of knowing all things, it therefore "cannot reasonably be regarded as blended with the body: if so, it would acquire some quality, e.g. warmth or cold, or even have an organ like the sensitive faculty: as it is, it has none." 3. Aristotle did of course believe that living things (and by extension, their bodily organs) possess intrinsic teleology: they "point to" their built-in ends. The eye is for seeing; that is it proper end. And we might say that one of the purposes of the human brain is: converting raw sensory data into information (percepts, image schemata) that the intellect can assimilate and process. But that's quite a different thing from generating semantic meaning. The brain cannot do that. Only a mind can do that. 4. The term "intentionality" has various meanings in the philosophical literature, but is often used to denote some kind of "aboutness." In this broad sense, I will happily grant that an animal's brain processes can be about the external world, in the sense that they track changes occurring in the world and help that animal navigate its way around its world. In my Ph.D. thesis, I argued that even an unconscious insect (such as a fruit fly) had a "map of the world" in its brain, which it continually updated on the basis of what it learned. (Learning doesn't have to be a conscious process - even the legs of cockroaches are capable of undergoing associative conditioning.) Nevertheless, it would be absurd to impute linguistic or semantic meaning to any kind of brain process. 5. Towards the end of his post, Ed Feser refers back to the philosophical problem he raised earlier in connection with materialism (viz. Thoughts possess inherent meaning; brain processes do not and cannot; therefore thoughts cannot be identified with brain processes) and he comments:
I maintain that the problem for materialism just described is insuperable. It shows that a materialist explanation of the mind is impossible in principle, a conceptual impossibility. And the reason has in part to do with the concept of matter to which materialists themselves are at least implicitly committed.
So it seems Ed thinks it's a knock-down argument against materialism. Part of the reason, as he goes on to say, is that modern materialists deny that material events (such as brain processes) are capable of having built-in teleological properties, whereas Aristotelians think that the teleological properties are an ontologically basic feature of living things, and of natural objects in general. But that isn't all; as we've seen, Aristotle would say that a material object, having a determinate nature of its own, is incapable of knowing the natures of all kinds of bodies, whereas the human intellect is perfectly capable of grasping the nature of any and every kind of body. So even for a materialist who decides to accept teleology as a basic feature of material objects (as Aristotle did), the problem of meaning still remains.vjtorley
December 6, 2012
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Reciprocating Bill- Information is neiter matter nor energy. And unfortunately for you, materialists don't have any supporting evidence for their position. And no one knows how to test itJoe
December 6, 2012
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Graham2, Thank you for your posts. You ask where meaning is located. Where is the number 3 located? Where is happiness located? Does that answer your question? Asking whether meaning has a location is like asking whether a joke has wheels - it's a category mistake. I hope that helps.vjtorley
December 6, 2012
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corrected link: The Police - Spirits In The Material World - video http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Tq0KW-_48Ccbornagain77
December 6, 2012
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Quantum Teleportation - IBM Research Page Excerpt: "it would destroy the original (photon) in the process,," http://researcher.ibm.com/view_project.php?id=2862 Ions have been teleported successfully for the first time by two independent research groups Excerpt: In fact, copying isn't quite the right word for it. In order to reproduce the quantum state of one atom in a second atom, the original has to be destroyed. This is unavoidable - it is enforced by the laws of quantum mechanics, which stipulate that you can't 'clone' a quantum state. In principle, however, the 'copy' can be indistinguishable from the original (that was destroyed),,, http://www.rsc.org/chemistryworld/Issues/2004/October/beammeup.asp Atom takes a quantum leap - 2009 Excerpt: Ytterbium ions have been 'teleported' over a distance of a metre.,,, "What you're moving is information, not the actual atoms," says Chris Monroe, from the Joint Quantum Institute at the University of Maryland in College Park and an author of the paper. But as two particles of the same type differ only in their quantum states, the transfer of quantum information is equivalent to moving the first particle to the location of the second. http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/news/2171769/posts Quantum no-deleting theorem Excerpt: A stronger version of the no-cloning theorem and the no-deleting theorem provide permanence to quantum information. To create a copy one must import the information from some part of the universe and to delete a state one needs to export it to another part of the universe where it will continue to exist. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quantum_no-deleting_theorem#Consequence Music and verse:
The Police – Spirits in the Material World http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cDs9zbiumDc John 3:12 "If I told you earthly things and you do not believe, how will you believe if I tell you heavenly things?
bornagain77
December 6, 2012
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