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FFT: Seversky and the IS-OUGHT gap

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In the ongoing AJ vs ID discussion thread, major tangential debates have developed. One of these is on the IS-OUGHT gap, and it is worth headlining due to its pivotal worldviews importance (and yes, this is a philosophy issue). Let us start with Seversky, highlighting his key contention — which is commonly asserted:

Sev, 261: >>Origenes @ 258

The matter seems very simple to me: because fermions and bosons are completely indifferent about morality, it is not possible to ground morality for atheists/materialists.

You cannot logically derive “ought” from “is”. No one can, not even God. So, if our morality is God-given, how did He – or, indeed, any other being – derive it? Did He toss a coin?>>

Origines, 262 (to EA but relevant): >>Eric Anderson @259

Thank you for pointing out the typical materialistic response wrt morality.

EA: However, the squirming can eventually follow the direction it does for the rest of the materialist creation story: namely, at some point Characteristic X didn’t exist, and then at some later point Characteristic X “evolved.”

The majority of materialists fails to understand that materialism can only take us to the illusion of effective moral laws. Suppose that by ‘Characteristic X’ is meant organismal behavior which is consistent with the moral law “thou shall not steal”. Now, in a purely material universe, all sorts of physical stuff can contribute to X, but X can never be caused by the moral law “thou shall not steal”. The consistency with a moral law is happenstantial and not an intended result. There cannot be a moral law who is telling atoms how to behave. In a materialistic world the moral law “though shall not steal” has no power to reach down in the brain and rearrange neuronal behavior so as to comply with that moral law.

Illusion.

Given materialism, it can only be the case that it is as if a moral law is being respected. So, no, naturalism cannot get us to morality. It can only get us to the illusion of morality. It can result in behavior which, incidentally, is consistent with a moral law. But noticing this consistency is nothing more than the occasional observation of temporal happenstantial synchronicity between two totally unrelated things.>>

KF, 263: >>Seversky, if you have been keeping track that is not what is at stake. The issue is, we are patently inescapably morally governed, as for instance you implied by trying to correct and by expecting us to have a sense of duty to the truth and the right. Either that speaks truly or mindedness collapses into grand delusion. As, if such is a delusional perception in an actually utterly amoral world then delusion is at the heart of attempts to reason and be responsible — as Rosenberg implies but tries to put a rosy picture on. Absurd. So, we need to ask, what sort of world must we be in for such moral government not to be rooted in grand delusion. This points to world-roots that cannot be infinite regress or a chicken-egg loop. Finitely remote, necessary being root. As, were there ever utter non-being (which can have no causal powers) such would forever obtain. The premise that, on pain of grand delusion and absurdity, we are responsibly and rationally significantly free and morally governed, self-moved creatures then leads to the world root being a necessary being that is at the same time inextricably the root of moral government. Where, if we are not self-moved initiating causal agents, we have no true freedom to draw a LOGICAL, meaningful inference from grounds and/or evidence to the consequent or a warranted conclusion, we would be trapped in a delusion of rationality while actually being the GIGO-limited playthings of our computational substrates and their blind, mechanically driven and/or stochastic cause effect chains. We must be free and self-moved to be rational or responsible. Is and ought are not IS–> OUGHT, but instead that they are inherently inextricably entangled and utterly fused at the world-root. There is one serious candidate (if you doubt, kindly provide a coherent alternative: _____ ) i.e. the inherently good creator God, a necessary and maximally great being, worthy of loyalty and the reasonable, responsible service of doing the good in accord with our evident nature.>>

The immediate context for this is also well worth excerpting as a part of the spark for onward discussion:

HP, 256: >>The [subjective moralists] I have read . . .  don’t say that “moral values and obligations are totally subjective.”, they claim that the individual values are subjective. A small distinction I realize, but an important one. And, I apologize in advance for not phrasing this as well as I would like.

My own personal belief is that our system of morality is a combination of objective and subjective. The most obvious objective aspect of our morality system is that the existance of this system appears to be universal amongst humans. Even psychopaths and sociopaths have a morality system. They just happen to be very different than that of the majority of the population. Of the other values (not killing, lying, stealing…) some may be objective and others subjective. Frankly, I don’t know. And I don’t really care. But the one thing that makes logical sense is that if there are objective morals, they are not independent of subjectivity. They are either strengthened by our experiences or they are weakened. Thus explaining the variations that we see in their application amongst different cultures.>>

Origines, 258:>>

hammaspeikko: The ones I have read, which I admit are limited, are more nuanced than that. They don’t say that “moral values and obligations are totally subjective.”, they claim that the individual values are subjective. A small distinction I realize, but an important one.

I have never heard about such a moral system. Individual values are subjective and non-individual values are not? Can you provide some more info?
The matter seems very simple to me: because fermions and bosons are completely indifferent about morality, it is not possible to ground morality for atheists/materialists.

Here is atheistic philosopher Alex Rosenberg:

Scientism can’t avoid nihilism. We need to make the best of it….

First, nihilism can’t condemn Hitler, Stalin, Mao, Pol Pot, or those who fomented the Armenian genocide or the Rwandan one. If there is no such thing as “morally forbidden,” then what Mohamed Atta did on September 11, 2001, was not morally forbidden. Of course, it was not permitted either. But still, don’t we want to have grounds to condemn these monsters? Nihilism seems to cut that ground out from under us. …

To avoid these outcomes, people have been searching for scientifically respectable justification of morality for least a century and a half. The trouble is that over the same 150 years or so, the reasons for nihilism have continued to mount. Both the failure to find an ethics that everyone can agree on and the scientific explanation of the origin and persistence of moral norms have made nihilism more and more plausible while remaining just as unappetizing.

[A. Rosenberg, ‘The Atheist’s Guide To Reality’, ch. 5]>>

EA, 259: >>Origenes:

The matter seems very simple to me: because fermions and bosons are completely indifferent about morality, it is not possible to ground morality for atheists/materialists.

I think your point is well made, and should be sufficient to make any materialist squirm.

However, the squirming can eventually follow the direction it does for the rest of the materialist creation story: namely, at some point Characteristic X didn’t exist, and then at some later point Characteristic X “evolved.”

This may not seem very intellectually satisfactory to the objective observer, but the materialist is perfectly happy to argue that morality evolved as a result of [insert made-up reason here]. It isn’t fundamentally different than any other system or characteristic evolving. No details. No particular reason or direction. It just did.

So while I agree with your general point, and Rosenberg’s frank admission, the entire issue becomes lost on the committed materialist. After all, the entire view of history and creation and all that this entails, is just — as you aptly noted — nothing more than a long accidental sequence of particles bumping into each other.

And those particles, so the thinking does, don’t have to ground anything. Not design, not functional complexity, not information. Nothing. Just wait long enough for the particles to bump into each other enough times, and — Ta Da! — here we are. Whether we are talking about molecular machines or morality, it is all the same in the materialist creation story.

Remember, this is all right in line with the Great Evolutionary Explanation for all things:

Stuff Happens.

It is really no more substantive than that.>>

So, how then do we come to be morally governed, and what does this imply about us and the world? END

Comments
Here are some quotes from an online article by the unapologetic Darwinian apologist, Michael Ruse:
Morality is just a matter of emotions, like liking ice cream and sex and hating toothache and marking student papers. But it is, and has to be, a funny kind of emotion. It has to pretend that it is not that at all! If we thought that morality was no more than liking or not liking spinach, then pretty quickly it would break down. Before long, we would find ourselves saying something like: "Well, morality is a jolly good thing from a personal point of view. When I am hungry or sick, I can rely on my fellow humans to help me. But really it is all bullshit, so when they need help I can and should avoid putting myself out. There is nothing there for me." The trouble is that everyone would start saying this, and so very quickly there would be no morality and society would collapse and each and every one of us would suffer. So morality has to come across as something that is more than emotion. It has to appear to be objective, even though really it is subjective… [M]orality is an illusion put in place by your genes to make you a social cooperator, what's to stop you behaving like an ancient Roman? Well, nothing in an objective sense. But you are still a human with your gene-based psychology working flat out to make you think you should be moral.
https://www.theguardian.com/commentisfree/belief/2010/mar/15/morality-evolution-philosophy However, if morality is just an illusion, and I know and believe this as Ruse does, then I don’t have any real moral obligation towards my fellow man nor should I expect that anyone is obligated to treat me “morally” in return. Morality in such a society would be superfluous if not totally meaningless. The surest way to cause the collapse of civilization is to convince a majority or even a large minority of people that Ruse is right-- “morality is an illusion.”john_a_designer
May 5, 2017
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Origenes: Maybe this will help. All opinions about a Jabberwocky are subjective. This is a statement about epistemology. As an objective fact, no Jabberwocky exists in reality. This is a statement about ontology. But the ontological reality has bearing on subjective opinions in this way. Because a Jabberwocky does not exist in reality, but only in the imagination of the individual, all opinions regarding the nature of a Jabberwocky are, strictly speaking, neither right nor wrong, since there is no ontological reality against which to compare them. Only if a Jabberwocky existed in reality could any subjective opinion about the nature of a Jabberwocky be either right or wrong. It would still be a subjective opinion, but it would be a subjective opinion about an underlying objective reality. Similarly, opinions about morality are subjective. This is a statement about epistemology. Nor is it the point of debate. Rather, the debate is about whether any ontological moral reality exists to which we might compare the subjective opinions. If not, as the subjectivist claims, then all opinions about morality are, strictly speaking, neither right nor wrong. The question about subjectivity with respect to God is an interesting one, but I think WJM makes some good points @135. Still, perhaps it would avoid confusion to think of morality as transcendent rather than objective. For me, the two are one and the same, since I believe the transcendent God is that within which every objective thing lives and moves and has its being.Phinehas
May 5, 2017
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Origenes #173
Here we should not use the term “subjective”! A unicorn also does not exist. Do we say that a unicorn is “subjective”? Is it not instead common usage to say that a unicorn does not exist? Similarly I don’t know of any atheists who claim that God is “subjective”.
No, this is not correct. The terms are being used in the context of ontology, not epistemology. As I have been saying in several different ways, morality exists, one way or the other. Even if morality doesn't have objective existence as an aspect of the world external to human minds and baked into the fabric of reality, there are nonetheless moral systems of various sorts that people create and try to adhere to in varying numbers which categorize actions into moral categories as per the dictates of those systems. So the question is, What is the ultimate nature of morality? Is it something that ONLY has subjective existence in the minds of humans, such that whatever moral pronouncements they make or systems they create are MERELY the product of their own minds and feeling and so CANNOT be either right or wrong in any ultimate sense because there is no ultimate moral truth for them to reflect? Or does morality ALSO have objective existence as a real phenomenon in the world, so that at least some moral values are baked into the fabric of reality, in which case the moral pronouncements humans make and the moral systems they follow really can be either right or wrong in an ultimate sense? There is nothing wrong with the way that "objective" and "subjective" are being used here. You seem to be zoning in on specific ways in which these terms are used in other contexts while ignoring the appropriate ways they are routinely used in this context.HeKS
May 5, 2017
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Follow-up #173, I should probably add this: When discussing so-called "subjective morality", the term "subjective" is used to indicate that there is a disconnect (a certain 'all-in-your-headness') with external reality; as HeKS points out eloquently. But this is inappropriate, because this disconnect is not a defining characteristic of subjectivity. Subjects are part of and interact with reality.Origenes
May 5, 2017
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HeKS @172
Conversely, to say that morality is subjective is to say that there is no moral dimension to reality with objective existence about which our subjective opinions can be either right or wrong.
Here we should not use the term “subjective”! A unicorn also does not exist. Do we say that a unicorn is “subjective”? Is it not instead common usage to say that a unicorn does not exist? Similarly I don’t know of any atheists who claim that God is “subjective”.
Instead, our subjective moral opinions are all that exist, without there being any external object of our moral perceptions. Instead, our subjective moral opinions are all that exist, without there being any external object of our moral perceptions.
Back in the day when a spade was called a spade, this would have been called “hallucinating”. Am I right or am I right? If some guy sees unicorns everywhere and has strong opinions about them, then he is not being “subjective” but he is simply “hallucinating” — assuming that unicorns indeed do not exist. For what reason did we start saying “subjective” instead of "non-existent" or “hallucinatory”? It’s inappropriate and gives “subjective” a bad name.Origenes
May 5, 2017
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Origenes #169
My opinion, subjective or objective, is insufficient to establish the truth. One point I’m trying to make in this discussion is that I, given that I am a subject, can only offer my subjective opinion. You may want to know my objective opinion, but I am unable to oblige.
It seems to me that this is where you're going wrong. The distinction being made here is not between subjective opinion and objective opinion. It is not about, say, a personally biased opinion and an unbiased opinion. That is not the way "objective" is being used here. To say that morality is objective is to say that there is some moral dimension to reality with objective existence about which our subjective opinions and perceptions can be either right or wrong. Conversely, to say that morality is subjective is to say that there is no moral dimension to reality with objective existence about which our subjective opinions can be either right or wrong. Instead, our subjective moral opinions are all that exist, without there being any external object of our moral perceptions. Our moral perceptions, in this regime, are only perceptions about our own feelings, or about what kinds of actions we think would be conducive to achieving our desired goals (whether individually or as some group operating under a kind of social contract), or illusions foisted on us by our evolutionary history. But the one thing they are not and cannot possibly be is a reflection of some deeper truth embedded in the fabric of reality because no such deeper truth exists to be reflected in our subjective perceptions.
You are contrasting “subjective opinion” and “objective truth”. You present them as mutually exclusive.
No, that is not at all what we are doing. Not any of us as far as I can see. What we are saying is that in order for it to even be possible for our subjective opinions to properly align with some objective truth, that objective truth must actually exist. Under Moral Subjectivism, that objective truth does not exist and so there is nothing for our subjective moral opinions to align with, properly or otherwise. Moral Subjectivism is the rejection of any independently existing moral aspect to reality that might be the object of our moral perceptions.HeKS
May 5, 2017
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O, have you ever had a visual hallucination? I recall the day I had the shock of my life so to speak when suddenly a 3/4 circle of glittering kaleidoscope like effects popped up in front of my eyes. I was in my lab, working hard -- maybe too hard. I decided, let me go for lunch. 45 minutes and a couple of Tastee patties washed down with a box of orange juice later, the effect faded. I spoke with an ophthalmologist, who explained, it was a migraine effect; which fits right in with a relatively mild case. This was a situation where I could not be mistaken that I was conscious, but I was knowing that I was seeing things that were not real in the sense of being in the external world, and was scared that something had gone seriously wrong with my eyes. Here, we see the point that while subjectivity is always involved, the content can sometimes be in error and warrant that moves us beyond mere perception is important. KFkairosfocus
May 5, 2017
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KF: O, did you see what else I am saying? Including that subjectivity is involved in all aspects of truth seeking, including the warranting process that allows us to have objective truth?
Yes. You also said this:
I may know something subjectively that is absolutely true too, e.g. that I am conscious ...
I agree with all of that. My problem is with the term "subjective", it is superfluous. BTW 'cogito ergo sum', I act therefor I am, what 'warranting process' is involved here? Rather limited, right?Origenes
May 5, 2017
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JAD @168:
So without cheating, what is your opinion?
To be honest, I have no idea JAD. At this point I can only take a wild guess. Ok here goes: the first is a prime number and the second is not.
There is free software available on the internet that quickly will tell you. But, of course then you are going to have to trust the software. Is your subjective opinion about numbers sufficient to establish the truth, not just for you but everyone else?
Nope. My opinion, subjective or objective, is insufficient to establish the truth. One point I'm trying to make in this discussion is that I, given that I am a subject, can only offer my subjective opinion. You may want to know my objective opinion, but I am unable to oblige.
Is number theory based on the subjective opinion of mathematicians, or is there objective truth about numbers?
You are contrasting "subjective opinion" and "objective truth". You present them as mutually exclusive. I have a problem with that. WRT to your prime number question my "subjective opinion" is worth close to nothing. But what if I were a math wizard and could offer you the correct answer? In that case there would be no conflict with "subjective opinion" and "objective truth". So what does that tell us about "subjective opinion"? Very little I would say.
The same principle applies to moral truth. Nobody’s subjective opinion is sufficient to establish moral truth for everyone else.
There is at least one person who may very well be an exception to your rule ... — see post #114Origenes
May 5, 2017
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Origenes, Here are two numbers:
17460731 17460733
In your opinion, is one of them a prime number? Actually there are four possibilities:
The first one is prime. The second one is prime. Neither is prime. Or, both are prime.
So without cheating, what is your opinion? There is free software available on the internet that quickly will tell you. But, of course then you are going to have to trust the software. Is your subjective opinion about numbers sufficient to establish the truth, not just for you but everyone else? Is number theory based on the subjective opinion of mathematicians, or is there objective truth about numbers? The same principle applies to moral truth. Nobody’s subjective opinion is sufficient to establish moral truth for everyone else.john_a_designer
May 5, 2017
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O, did you see what else I am saying? Including that subjectivity is involved in all aspects of truth seeking, including the warranting process that allows us to have objective truth? For instance with the ball on the table in the dark or after day has dawned? [This is a simple case of warrant based on proper function of our senses and faculties, in an environment conducive to their correct perception of the truth. Thus, we see the issue that subjective perception may or may not be well warranted to be true but is capable of capturing the truth.] KFkairosfocus
May 5, 2017
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WJM: Let’s look at this logically, Origenes. If my original subjective perception/interpretation of a box I see is that it is black, 9?x2?x4? and weighs 5 lbs, and further examination by several people confirm this, how was my original subjective perception erroneous or faulty? Answer: it wasn’t. Which means “subjective” is not synonymous with “erroneous” or “faulty”.
This is the exact same argument that I have made repeatedly in this thread. Obviously, the mere fact that knowledge X is subjectively held makes knowledge X neither right nor wrong. Good that we agree on this. To be clear, being subjectively held doesn’t make knowledge false and it doesn’t make it true either. Subjectivity has nothing to do with the status of knowledge.
KF: … in context, we can speak of overlapping degrees or aspects of truth. Subjective — as perceived by a subject. Absolute, as being the materially complete, utterly accurate, undiluted, untainted description of reality.
Here KF describes a spectrum of degrees of truth. On the one side we find “subjective” and on the opposite side the “Absolute”. Is there any doubt about which one is preferable, about which one is false and which one is true?
KF: Objective, as intermediate and overlapping: well warranted and sufficiently reliable for use, but in principle open to correction towards being a closer approximation to the absolute ideal.
And between those two opposites (“subjective” and “absolute”) there is the “objective”, which, if all goes well, moves away from the bad (the “subjective”) towards the good (the “absolute”). Note that “objective” is “well warranted”, which suggests that this is not the case with “subjective”.
KF: Warrant is the bridge that moves us beyond mere perceptions to a heightened confidence that we have something reliably close enough to the truth, the whole relevant truth and nothing but the relevant truth.
“Subjective”, we read, seems to be something that is stuck at the level of “mere perceptions” and is far removed from the truth. If subjectivity is neutral wrt the validity of knowledge, what is its role in this story?
KF: Origines, have you noted that I have pointed out that we may subjectively perceive the absolute truth, e.g. that — under appropriate lighting — the ball on the table is bright red? But that we may also err in such a matter: it may be the pre-dawn dark, or we may be colour-blind etc?
Again, KF, I have to ask, why do inject the term “subjectively” in the line “we may subjectively perceive ....”. What does it clarify? Do we sometimes objectively perceive things? Does it make sense to ask someone:
“Did you perceive X subjectively or objectively?”
If so, what is being asked?Origenes
May 5, 2017
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F/N: I think two comments in the mindset thread will be helpful here also:
55 kairosfocus May 5, 2017 at 3:29 am BO’H: For one (as noted), Plato as long ago as c 360 BC gives us a warning on both history and worldviews analysis that — on the history of the past 100 years — we would be soberly advised to heed. One of the great errors of relativism and subjectivism is to underestimate the issue that sound history was bought with blood and tears, so that those who refuse to heed its lessons doom themselves to pay the same coin over and over again. A point BTW, strangely enough, underscored by no less a personage than Karl Marx in his assessment of the two Napoleons. Namely that history repeats twice; first as tragedy then as farce. In this context, we need to face the issue that while we are clearly inescapably under moral government (as EA counsels, just look at the ‘papers), evolutionary materialist ideologies and other worldview schemes that have no IS that grounds OUGHT clearly are left to relativistic and amoral agendas boiling down to the soft nihilism of manipulation and might making spin and agit-prop driven politically correct ‘truth,’ ‘right,’ ‘rights’ etc. With the consequence of inducing Noelle-Neumann’s spiral of silence for the marginalised, often in the context of marches of ruinous folly. So, I refuse to be isolated and silenced, there is too much innocent blood soaking the ground and crying out to the heavens to stand by passively with an enabling silence. For, the ghosts of 100+ million victims of democides over the past 100 years and those of 800+ million victims of our ongoing war on the unborn, now mounting up at a million a week, rebuke us for our folly. On fair comment, the proper response to those facts and such manifest blood guilt soaked folly, is to turn back from the crumbling cliff’s edge, rather than trying to dismiss warnings. KF
And:
56 kairosfocus May 5, 2017 at 3:59 am WJM (& attn BO’H i/l/o EA above), you are right. As we are conscious agents and subjects, everything we actively do goes through our subjectivity. The issue is to recognise that reality exists such that we are challenged by the ideal that absolute truth adequately and accurately describes relevant reality: the truth, the whole truth and nothing but the truth. Thus, we strive to find warrant that gives us well founded confidence that we have a sufficiently reliable grasp of the truth to act decisively when much is at stake. In the context of moral truth and moral certainty such that we would be ill advised to act otherwise than X, given Y, the big problem is that for centuries moral truth has been ideologically undermined with the same sort of radical relativism and implied amorality Plato warned against 2350+ years past being put up as a — grossly inadequate — substitute. Many do not even realise that if the social “consensus” determines ‘truth,’ ‘right,’ and ‘rights’ etc. one immediate consequence is that the dissident would-be reformer is automatically in the ‘wrong’ and is then a proper target for those tasked to enforce the consensus. Bringing us directly to the soft nihilism of manipulation, intimidation and naked might making ‘truth,’ ‘right,’ and ‘rights’ etc. Indeed, that is exactly what is now playing out through the bully-boy blackshirt censorship by riot and false accusation tactics at Berkeley and other so-called halls of higher education, undermining the integrity of the global university movement. And yet, something like, it is self-evidently evil to kidnap, torture, rape and murder an innocent child for one’s sick pleasure has long been on the table as a corrective yardstick case that allows us to instead recognise core moral truth, the moral government our consciences point to, and the recognition that we must live in a world where at world-root level, there is an IS that inherently grounds OUGHT. Responsible, rational freedom is governed morally, by a due balance of rights, freedoms and responsibilities, and points to a world root that adequately grounds that level of free, responsible, rational being. But we would have the fatter bone we see in the water, and we foolishly drop our own bone, splash; only to lose both. KF
KF PS: WJM, excellent counter-example.kairosfocus
May 5, 2017
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Origines, have you noted that I have pointed out that we may subjectively perceive the absolute truth, e.g. that -- under appropriate lighting -- the ball on the table is bright red? But that we may also err in such a matter: it may be the pre-dawn dark, or we may be colour-blind etc? It is in that context that it is undeniable that error exists, that prudence calls for warrant towards objective truth. So that we may have a credibly reliable grasp of the material truth to guide us. This is indeed an advance, and it in no wise implies that subjectivity per se is inferior or somehow lacking. Relative to what -- to being a blindly mechanical and/or stochastic computational substrate with no genuine rational insight? Without being self-moved, morally governed, responsibly free and rational subjects, we could provide no warrant that gives us confidence that we have a reliable grasp of enough of the truth on a matter to prudently act on it. I think, we must understand the precious gift of conscious subjectivity with responsible, rational, insightful freedom AND recognise that we are finite, fallible, morally struggling and too often ill-willed. So, the humility and wisdom that looks to sufficient warrant that our subjective perception is objectively grounded is a matter of moral government, not denigration of subjectivity. Where, the ideal case is obviously the absolute truth that aptly describes reality: the truth, the whole truth and nothing but the truth. KFkairosfocus
May 5, 2017
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Let's look at this logically, Origenes. If my original subjective perception/interpretation of a box I see is that it is black, 9"x2"x4" and weighs 5 lbs, and further examination by several people confirm this, how was my original subjective perception erroneous or faulty? Answer: it wasn't. Which means "subjective" is not synonymous with "erroneous" or "faulty".William J Murray
May 5, 2017
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Origenes said:
I find that hard to believe. See for instance post #138 by Kairosfocus. Here he describes bad/incomplete perception to illustrate what he means by “subjective” perception. He then goes on to describe better perception, which, according to him, leads to “a degree of objectivity”.
I think you're misunderstanding him. He's not using the term "subjective" to mean something about the perception is necessarily, inherently "wrong", but rather he's describing the potential problem in all subjective perceptions/interpretations that they may be faulty with regards to how they reflect reality. He then goes on about how we can become more confident that our subjective perception/interpretation is an accurate description of the reality; that doesn't mean anything about the original perception/interpretation was necessarily wrong in the first place. KF is certainly welcome to correct me if I'm wrong here.
I’m sure that I can show you many other examples where the term “subjectivity” is used to indicate something negative. How about post #143 by JAD, who wrote:
You might be right there, but I disagree with JAD if that was his meaning. There may be no difference between what a person subjectively believes is right and wrong and what is actually, objectively right or wrong. I'll have to let JAD say what he meant by that. People often us terms loosely without strict contextualization because they assume both parties are understanding the term the same way - it leads to miscommunication.William J Murray
May 5, 2017
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WJM #160:
Origenes: … I would like to see the term “subjective” being used with its proper value/meaning. Now it is often used to indicate that some knowledge or morality is wanting.
I’ve never heard of the term “subjective” being used that way. I don’t know that anyone here is using the term to express that view.
I find that hard to believe. See for instance post #138 by Kairosfocus. Here he describes bad/incomplete perception to illustrate what he means by “subjective” perception. He then goes on to describe better perception, which, according to him, leads to “a degree of objectivity”.
KF: The difference between subjective perception and the advance to warrant that then leads to a degree of objectivity should be clear …
I’m sure that I can show you many examples where the term "subjective" is used to indicate something negative. How about post #143 by JAD, who wrote:
… when it comes to ethics and morality is there a difference between what someone personally believes is right or wrong and what is really right and wrong. The first view is what is usually termed “subjective”; the second is what is termed “objective.”
Also here ‘subjective’ is clearly used to indicate that there is something wrong with the knowledge/morality at hand. The “subjective” view, according to JAD, means something opposed to the "objective" view, which informs us about “what is really right and wrong”. Objective = correct, subjective = wrong. But Kairosfocus and JAD are not the only ones. “That’s only your ‘subjective’ opinion”, is an often heard phrase and it is meant dismissively.Origenes
May 5, 2017
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Origenes said:
Not at all, I would like to see the term “subjective” being used with its proper value/meaning. Now it is often used to indicate that some knowledge or morality is wanting.
I've never heard of the term "subjective" being used that way. I don't know that anyone here is using the term to express that view. Being individuals everything we perceive is subjectively processed and interpreted. That doesn't mean it doesn't reflect objective reality, nor does it mean it is wrong. That is different from commodities, like personal proclivities, which are entirely subjective (manufactured by the individual) and are not taken to reflect any exterior reality. IOW, "Vanilla ice cream is the best!" is not a claim of fact about objective reality, it is a statement of subjective preference. Conversely, "The box is 12 inches tall" is a statement intended to be an accurate claim about physical reality, even though all any of us can do is subjectively measure the box. If morality is entirely subjective (manufactured internally by the individual), then "beating your wife" is factually right or wrong depending on how that person subjectively feels about it. By this I mean that it is a fact that that person feels a certain way about it. There is no claim about the objective value of that entirely subjective "moral". If, however, morality is an objectively existent phenomena which we sense subjectively and are making claims we believe reflect the reality of that morality, then "beating your wife is wrong" becomes a claim about reality which we expect others to adhere to regardless of their personal proclivities.William J Murray
May 5, 2017
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HeKS: Honestly I don’t know what you’re talking about at this point. You seem to be taking a lot of issue with the standard terms that are used to describe the differing views on this subject ...
Correct. I am not arguing against "objective" morality in favor of "subjective" morality. I am arguing that using these terms in this context makes no sense. See e.g. post #151.
HeKS:... but you seem to be using them in ways that have nothing to do with their standard meanings ...
Not at all, I would like to see the term "subjective" being used with its proper value/meaning. Now it is often used to indicate that some knowledge or morality is wanting. This usage seems to suggest that there is something wrong with personal/subjective knowledge, which is utterly nonsensical, since we are subjects and all our knowledge is subjective*. — See also #146, #153. - - - (*) Please note that here I use the term "subjective" in its proper meaning. I am not saying that all our knowledge is BS, I am saying that we hold knowledge as persons. There is nothing wrong with that and the mere fact that we hold knowledge X as persons does not make knowledge X wrong.Origenes
May 5, 2017
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Origenes #155
If subjective morality ‘does not reflect any reality that exists in the world at large, outside the minds of humans’, then it has to be wrong.
No, it doesn't, because there would be nothing that would be objectively right for it to be tested against and found wanting. If objective morality does not exist and morality is simply a subjective construct existing in the minds of humans in various and contradictory forms, a person's moral claims could only be wrong if they are claimed to represent an objective reality, and in that case they would simply be factually wrong about the alleged objective status, not wrong about their moral claim itself. As much as the people who accept subjective morality hate the ice cream flavor comparison, it is highly apt. If objective moral values and duties do not exist, someone saying that genocide is terrible is very much like someone saying that vanilla ice cream is terrible, and a different person saying genocide is great is like them saying that vanilla ice cream is great. Is vanilla ice cream terrible or is it great? Well, it's terrible for the first person and great for the second. To the extent that each person's declarations accurately express their own personal views and preferences, they are both right. Whether vanilla ice cream is terrible or great depends entirely on the subjective perspective of the person eating it. In the absence of any objective truth about how good or bad vanilla ice cream is, nobody can be wrong in describing their personal feelings about it. Claims about some ice cream flavor are not objective claims about how the world ultimately is, but about how the person speaking feels about something, namely, a particular flavor of ice cream. And in the absence of objective moral values and duties, moral claims about genocide are precisely like preferential claims about ice cream flavors. It might truly be terrible for me, but it might also truly be great for you. If there are no actual objective moral values and duties in the world, then neither one of us could possibly be wrong about our preferences. We could only be wrong if we claimed that our preferences reflected an objective truth or standard.
Any morality, so-called “subjective morality” included, makes claims about the world that exists outside the minds of humans.
No, they don't. At least not in the way that you seem to mean it. Someone who does not accept the existence of objective moral values and duties might make moral assessments about certain actions that are happening in the world, but in labelling some action "bad" (or "wrong", or "evil"), they are merely describing how they feel about that action, not saying that the action is wrong when compared to objective moral aspect of reality. Consider this statement from Mark Frank to see what I'm talking about:
Mark Frank: As a subjectivist ... when I assert something is evil I am not describing, I am condemning. There is no fact I am reporting so it can’t be wrong.
Do you see?
Again, moral claims are about reality.
Not for moral subjectivists. This is precisely the difference between people who believe in objective moral values and duties and those who don't.
Given that we are subjects and that all our knowledge is therefor “subjective”, how can we know about “objective morality”, without turning it into that useless “subjective morality”, which, according to you, by definition, ‘does not reflect any reality that exists in the world at large, outside the minds of humans’?
You seem to be completely confusing concepts here. We can have a subjective experience of an objective reality. The mere fact that we experience something as a subject of the experience doesn't mean that experience is false, and it certainly doesn't mean that the objective reality we experienced doesn't exist. But this is all beside the point. Moral Subjectivism consists in the claim that morality is only subjective and that it does not have any independent real existence as an aspect of the world. It claims that when we have a personal feeling or subjective experience related to the moral status of some action, it is impossible that such a subjective experience might be a reflection of a deeper moral reality existing in the world because no such deeper moral reality exists. On this view, our feelings about morality can only ever possibly be our own subjective feelings, which might be the result of our upbringing, environmental conditions, genetic conditions, our evolutionary history, or whatever, but because there is no objective moral dimension to reality, it is impossible that anybody could be objectively right in their moral feelings, and it is equally impossible that anyone could ever be objectively wrong in their moral feelings.
Okay, so “subjective morality” is “merely descriptive claims about how this person or that person feels.” You do understand that this is not what I’m talking about, right?
No. Honestly I don't know what you're talking about at this point. You seem to be taking a lot of issue with the standard terms that are used to describe the differing views on this subject, but you seem to be using them in ways that have nothing to do with their standard meanings, which I think is resulting in a lot of talking past each other. I'm really confused about what your point is, what you're trying to argue for, and what you're taking issue with.
Sorry HeKS, this is not helpful. Nowhere have I argued that there is such a thing as “multiple truths”.
I didn't say you did. I was merely pointing out that it is only if we accept the existence of objective moral values and duties that we could affirm the possibility of being factually wrong about moral claims or of committing acts that are truly morally wrong (rather than just contrary to the preferences of some group of people)HeKS
May 4, 2017
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hammaspeikko, I have not been arguing in these comments for the existence of objective morality. All I have been doing is explaining what the differences are between objective and subjective morality and pointing out that they really are different things. If you want actual arguments for the existence of objective morality then I suggest you take up the invitation that has been extended to you multiple times now to review the discussion jdk and I have been having in the other thread. And just quickly...
But we are talking about objective versus subjective morality. If there are no objective moral values, why does it have to tell us anything about the objective moral status of the values?
Not only does it not have to ... it can't. That's what I was pointing out.
But I am playing devil’s advocate. If there is no objective morality, how is it possible to affirm objective right or wrong?
Again, it isn't ... and that's my point. Look, there are people who already accept the existence of objective morality but deny the existence of God. For those people, you can show them that if objective moral values and duties exist, God must exist. For others who don't believe in objective moral values, you can make arguments to show that their existence is either logically necessary or, at the very least, the most rational conclusion. But in either case, it's important for people to properly understand the concepts and what is and is not being talked about at any given time.HeKS
May 4, 2017
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HeKs:
And that is a subjective or utilitarian measure.
Agreed.
Of course certain actions will be more or less conducive to achieving certain targets, but you must always then ask why anyone should be compelled to accept that the target itself is good or right.
Why? If the vast majority agree with it (eg, killing, stealing, lying...), does it really matter if it is right or wrong? With that level of support, it is going to happen, or efforts will be made to prevent in from happening, regardless. We have seen this throughout history, with both favourable and detrimental outcomes.
Why should anyone feel compelled to accept that if they are not so inclined?
That is why we have laws. They are not perfect, but they seem to work.
Perhaps the other person, like the radical environmentalist, thinks that the good and right thing is for 90% of humans to be exterminated from the planet for the sake of the plants and the rocks, so that the planet can return to looking untouched by human habitation.
They are certainly entitled to their thoughts.
Who is to say they would not be right in killing off most of the human population to achieve the ends they consider desirable?
I think that the 90% slated for extermination might object.
Saying that we are able to measure actions against desired goals and then call those things that are conducive to attaining the goal, “good”, and those that are not, “bad”, tells us nothing about the objective moral status of the actions.
But we are talking about objective versus subjective morality. If there are no objective moral values, why does it have to tell us anything about the objective moral status of the values?
But who says that it’s long-term benefits that should matter?
That was just an example. Maybe it doesn't matter.
And what if some individual succeeds in attaining long-term benefits from dishonesty? Does that mean that dishonesty is morally good for them?
For them? Yes. Whatever "morally good" means.
And what if someone doesn’t care about their reputation or about getting benefits in the long run?
Then they will just live outside of society. As we see every day.
Or what if they just keep moving to new towns every time they think their dishonesty is about to start working against them and they start in with their dishonesty all over again?
Then they aren't interested in living within a community. And, again, we see this in real life. How is this an argument for objective morality?
As I’ve said before, if we want to affirm that there is ANY action that is really morally right or wrong, even just one thing, then we are affirming the existence of objective morality and we need an ultimate grounding for that.
But I am playing devil's advocate. If there is no objective morality, how is it possible to affirm objective right or wrong? I realize that I am being a little pig headed in this, but most of the arguments that I have seen supporting objective morality either presuppose that it exists, or base their arguments on the perceived negative consequences if it doesn't exist. I have not seen any arguments that actually explain what we see every day in a better fashion than an assumption that morality is subjective.hammaspeikko
May 4, 2017
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HeKS @148
When speaking of Subjective Morality, we’re not talking about a type of knowledge or belief, but about a type of commodity or reality. Subjective morality speaks to a morality that has its existence only in the mind of one or more humans, but it does not reflect any reality that exists in the world at large, outside the minds of humans.
If subjective morality ‘does not reflect any reality that exists in the world at large, outside the minds of humans’, then it has to be wrong. What does that mean? It means that all my personal/subjective beliefs about morality are wrong, because they are personal/subjective. But why is that the case? Why is it that, because a belief is held by a person—because a belief is “subjective”—, it has to be wrong? Given the fact that I am a person (subject) and can only hold personal (subjective) knowledge, this doesn't look good.
For this reason, nobody can ever be wrong about Subjective Morality in any ultimate sense, because its ultimate ground exists only within the individuals who hold those particular moral opinions.
This doesn’t make sense to me. Any morality, so-called “subjective morality” included, makes claims about the world that exists outside the minds of humans. Obviously those claims are false if they do not reflect that reality. Also, it does not make the claims ‘not wrong’ when the ultimate ground of those claims lies within individuals.
They are real for the person who holds them, but they are no more real than the opposite moral opinions that might be held by someone else.
So? The mere fact that they look real to some ppl (also) do not make them true.
There is no touchstone or ruler against which these can be compared and found to be in error.
Again, moral claims are about reality.
Conversely, Objective Morality refers to a morality that really exists as part of the backdrop of reality, and it is what it is regardless of how well people discern it or how they get to know about it.
Given that we are subjects and that all our knowledge is therefor "subjective", how can we know about “objective morality”, without turning it into that useless “subjective morality”, which, according to you, by definition, ‘does not reflect any reality that exists in the world at large, outside the minds of humans’?
In this case, moral claims become descriptive claims about how the world is, rather than merely descriptive claims about how this person or that person feels.
Okay, so “subjective morality” is “merely descriptive claims about how this person or that person feels.” You do understand that this is not what I’m talking about, right?
This means that moral claims about what is good or bad can actually be in error, because they are claims about what THE truth is, not simply what YOUR OWN truth is.
Sorry HeKS, this is not helpful. Nowhere have I argued that there is such a thing as "multiple truths".Origenes
May 4, 2017
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hammaspeikko #152 But this is why this discussion always comes down to ultimate logical grounding. Notice...
I’m afraid that I have to disagree. The touchstone or ruler by which they can be compared is how they serve the individual and their family over the long term.
And that is a subjective or utilitarian measure. Of course certain actions will be more or less conducive to achieving certain targets, but you must always then ask why anyone should be compelled to accept that the target itself is good or right. Some actions are more or less conducive to the flourishing of human well-being, but who says that the flourishing of human well-being is a good or right target? Why should anyone feel compelled to accept that if they are not so inclined? Perhaps the other person, like the radical environmentalist, thinks that the good and right thing is for 90% of humans to be exterminated from the planet for the sake of the plants and the rocks, so that the planet can return to looking untouched by human habitation. Who is to say they would not be right in killing off most of the human population to achieve the ends they consider desirable? Saying that we are able to measure actions against desired goals and then call those things that are conducive to attaining the goal, "good", and those that are not, "bad", tells us nothing about the objective moral status of the actions. Two groups with two diametrically opposed goals could place opposite moral labels on identical actions and both groups would be equally right in the context of their own subjective standards and goals. If Objective Morality exists, however, they cannot possibly both be right. At least one of the groups would have to be wrong about the moral status of their actions.
We have all experienced, either directly or indirectly, that dishonesty may benefit an individual over the short term, and sometimes over the medium term.
But who says that it's long-term benefits that should matter? And what if some individual succeeds in attaining long-term benefits from dishonesty? Does that mean that dishonesty is morally good for them?
But once others catch on to the dishonesty, the benefits quickly turn into detriments. A person who has a reputation of honesty benefits from it in the long run.
And what if someone doesn't care about their reputation or about getting benefits in the long run? Or what if they just keep moving to new towns every time they think their dishonesty is about to start working against them and they start in with their dishonesty all over again? As I've said before, if we want to affirm that there is ANY action that is really morally right or wrong, even just one thing, then we are affirming the existence of objective morality and we need an ultimate grounding for that.HeKS
May 4, 2017
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KF @149
One can subjectively perceive and assert or accept the absolute truth of a matter.
There is no other way, right? We are subjects, so we can only do things “subjectively”.
Or, one can be in error.
You mean: ‘Or, one can be “subjectively” in error’. We could also choose, and this would be my suggestion, to refrain from the term "subjective", because it is meaningless:
One can subjectively perceive and assert or accept the absolute truth of a matter. Or, one can be in error.
See? I don’t think that any meaning has been lost by leaving “subjectively” out.Origenes
May 4, 2017
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HeKs:
For this reason, nobody can ever be wrong about Subjective Morality in any ultimate sense, because its ultimate ground exists only within the individuals who hold those particular moral opinions. They are real for the person who holds them, but they are no more real than the opposite moral opinions that might be held by someone else. There is no touchstone or ruler against which these can be compared and found to be in error."
I'm afraid that I have to disagree. The touchstone or ruler by which they can be compared is how they serve the individual and their family over the long term. We have all experienced, either directly or indirectly, that dishonesty may benefit an individual over the short term, and sometimes over the medium term. But once others catch on to the dishonesty, the benefits quickly turn into detriments. A person who has a reputation of honesty benefits from it in the long run.hammaspeikko
May 4, 2017
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john_a_designer @143
... when it comes to ethics and morality is there a difference between what someone personally believes is right or wrong and what is really right and wrong.
Is there necessarily a difference?
The first view is what is usually termed “subjective”; the second is what is termed “objective.”
Indeed. Now why is this? This convention seems to suggest that there is something wrong with ‘what someone personally believes is right or wrong’. There is something wrong with personal beliefs, because they are personal/subjective. Because they are personal they cannot, in principle, be correct/“objective”. I have two problems with this: 1) I don’t understand why this is necessarily the case. Why does the fact that knowledge X is held by a person make knowledge X wrong? 2) All knowledge is held by a person. There is no other kind. There is only "subjective" knowledge.Origenes
May 4, 2017
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JAD, can someone kindly show us i, the square root of -1? An abstract entity like that can have objective warrant. We can show that a square circle is an impossible being. We can show that were there ever utter non-being, as such has no causal capacity, such would forever obtain. And many more cases. In morality, it is self evident -- and thus quite objective -- that it is evil to kidnap, torture, rape and murder a young child for one's sick pleasure. (BTW, notice how across the years no-one has tried to argue that such is a good thing or at least morally neutral?) So, we can be pretty sure of objectivity of truth and knowledge in general, and of moral knowledge on key points in particular. Just, it is not fashionable to say that in today's reprobate age in which say, law, medicine, media, parliaments, education etc are utterly warped to enable the worst holocaust in history, our generation's war on our unborn children: 800+ million dead in 40+ years, and mounting up at a million per week. Such an untoward generation cannot be expected to think straight. We need to wake up to what we have become, fast. KFkairosfocus
May 4, 2017
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O, subjectivity is inevitable in human knowing etc. The issue is that truth is what accurately describes reality, no reference to warrant or whatever. One can subjectively perceive and assert or accept the absolute truth of a matter. Or, one can be in error. The application of warrant of appropriate degree moves us to objective truth that is not just a perception. But warrant typically is not perfect so objective truth claims are open to onward test. KF PS; The my truth is X claim tries to reduce truth to the subjective domain.kairosfocus
May 4, 2017
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Origenes, I'm finding these ways of defining subjective and objective rather odd in this context. When speaking of Subjective Morality, we're not talking about a type of knowledge or belief, but about a type of commodity or reality. Subjective morality speaks to a morality that has its existence only in the mind of one or more humans, but it does not reflect any reality that exists in the world at large, outside the minds of humans. For this reason, nobody can ever be wrong about Subjective Morality in any ultimate sense, because its ultimate ground exists only within the individuals who hold those particular moral opinions. They are real for the person who holds them, but they are no more real than the opposite moral opinions that might be held by someone else. There is no touchstone or ruler against which these can be compared and found to be in error. Conversely, Objective Morality refers to a morality that really exists as part of the backdrop of reality, and it is what it is regardless of how well people discern it or how they get to know about it. In this case, moral claims become descriptive claims about how the world is, rather than merely descriptive claims about how this person or that person feels. This means that moral claims about what is good or bad can actually be in error, because they are claims about what THE truth is, not simply what YOUR OWN truth is.HeKS
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