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Atheists Believe “Truth” Has Magical Properties

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At comment 60 in this thread about self-described atheistic materialists who want portray themselves as being moral yet having no basis by which to be moral in any objective sense, Seversky says in response:

“However, it is a choice between able to be good in a way that actually means something and actually matters,…” to whom? That’s always the unspoken part of such a claim. Meaning only exists in the mind of the beholder and something or some one only matters to some one. Believers fell better if they believe that their lives have meaning and matter, which means they need a Creator to whom they matter.

Notice that, according to Seversky, meaning is an entirely subective pheonomena. IOW, in Seversky’s worldview, being good an entirely subjective narrative.  It only exists in a person’s mind.  There is no means by which anyone can be “good” in a way that is objectively valid and objectively meaningful (meaning, it is good to the mind that is the ground of existence, or god).

In the very next paragraph of his response, Seversky attempts to portray an atheist’s happiness as somehow more real than a theist’s happiness, as if the quality or value of ones experience of happiness would be increased if it referred to something objectively real. He uses a quote from Karl Marx to attempt to get his point across:

The abolition of religion as the illusory happiness of the people is the demand for their real happiness. To call on them to give up their illusions about their condition is to call on them to give up a condition that requires illusions. The criticism of religion is, therefore, in embryo, the criticism of that vale of tears of which religion is the halo.

So, after I make the point that being good would have more validity and meaning if it referred to an objectively real commodity, Seversky shoots that down by insisting that being “good” can only be a subjective narrative. Yet, he seems to think that happiness – which which would obviously also be a subjective state of mind in his worldview – can be of a higher quality if it was generated by a correspondence to objective reality (giving up illusions, as Marx said).

In that thread’s OP I said:

This is the tragic nature of the good, moral atheist; they want their good acts to be somehow more real or better than an act a religious fanatic considers and feels is good, but alas, under the logical ramifications of atheistic materialism, their good acts would be the factual, physico-chemical equivalents of Jihadis who felt they were doing good by driving planes into buildings. There is no source distinction between any act anyone does.

Seversky seems to agree with this about morality, but is apparently holding on to the idea that happiness is somehow different; that the happiness generated by physico-chemical processes under an atheist/materialist narrative is somehow of better quality than the happiness experienced by theists, as if the happenstance correspondence of one set of chemically-produced beliefs to physical reality would necessarily mean a concomitant better quality of happiness.  Seversky is apparently asserting that the quality of ones mental state of happiness is proportional to how closely ones beliefs happen to comport with physical reality.  Seversky is free to try and support this assertion, but we all know he cannot.  All this can possibly be is part of Seversky’s anti-theistic narrative; there’s no reason (that I know of) to believe that a theist’s happiness is somehow of less quality than an atheist’s.  Nor is there any reason to believe that theism confers any evolutionary disadvantage.

Under atheistic materialism, there are no bonus points after you die for  believing things that happen to be true, or that happen to correspond to factual reality.  Seversky’s only recourse then, in countering what he refers to as my “Pascal’s Wager” style argument, is that atheistic materialism somehow bestows a happiness quality advantage during life. Perhaps he might extend that argument to include some other ways that atheistic materialism produces some real-world experiential advantage. I’d like to see him or any other atheistic materialist try to make that argument either through logic or some kind of scientific evidence.  It is nothing more than a materialist myth.

The theme here is that for atheistic/materialists it appears to be important to their mythic narrative that atheistic/materialism conveys upon them some sort of meaningful experiential advantage over theists; that somehow, in some real sense, atheism is superior to theism and that it somehow demonstrates some sort of individual superiority (at least in the sense of setting aside “illusions” – which is a recurring theme.). The problem is that the nature of their worldview logically precludes that from even possibly being the case; they cannot deliberately understand and accept true things because their consciousness, sense of free will and responsibility are illusions generated by uncaring matter.

Note how the illusion of self, self-determination and free will that refers to itself as “Seversky” claims that illusions such as he can “set aside” false,  illusory beliefs and reap some kind of factual benefit.  This is an enormous metaphysical myth – that somehow something that is itself an illusion can set aside illusions and see and understand “the truth”, and that such a recognition will be somehow substantively rewarded in some way that escapes other illusions of self that refer to themselves as theists, as if some illusions of self are better than other illusions of self, and as if such a difference substantively matters.

If atheistic materialism is true, then we all have the beliefs we have and act the way we act because such things are caused by physico-chemical forces that have no regard for the truth-value of such thoughts and beliefs.  Additionally, there is no “I” that has supernatural power over what these materials and forces happen to generate.  It’s not like we would have the power to stop a physical process from producing a false belief because that belief is false; our idea that it is false would also be a sensation produced by the same blind physico-chemical forces that produced the false belief in the first place.  Those forces equally produce true and false beliefs and thoughts (wrt factual reality) and also generate our ideas that such thoughts are true and false.  If factually true beliefs happen to coexist with a higher-quality experience of happiness, how on Earth would one evidence such a claim, or be confident that the view of the evidence and logic wasn’t actually false?

It’s far more likely (under Seversky’s worldview) that false beliefs confer some sort of experiential advantage because, if atheistic materialism is true, that is what nature has actually selected for – the supposedly false belief that god and/or a supernatural world exists.  Also, Seversky seems to think that it is important to have true beliefs rather than false ones; but why? Surely he realizes there is no factual basis for the claim that holding a true beliefs confers a better quality of experiential happiness.  Why bother defending the idea that if a programmed biological automaton happens to think things in correspondence with reality that this also happens to correspond with a better quality of (ultimately) illusory happiness? So what if it does?  If Seversky’s worldview is true, our levels of happiness are entirely caused by forces beyond our illusory sense of control and self-determination. In fact, individual happiness itself is an illusory experience of an illusory self; yet Seversky claims the sense of happiness of one illusion of selfhood is less illusory than that experienced by another illusion of selfhood.

What the take-home point here is that Seversky and others, even though they assert themselves atheistic materialists, still argue and act as if they and others have some supernatural power to deliberately discern true beliefs from false and deliberately overpower the physico-chemical processes of the brain to force them to correspond to true beliefs; that true beliefs somehow magically confer a better quality of experiential happiness; that true beliefs are somehow magically necessary or important when it comes to life and the human species.  It is just as likely that false beliefs are necessary both to long-term survival and for higher quality experience of happiness, and that atheistic materialism is an evolutionary dead-end that cannot compete with religious faith when it comes to factually thriving in the real world because it corresponds to physical reality.

The idea that “truth” can be deliberately obtained, forced onto physico-chemical processes, and that it confers upon illusory “selves” a higher quality happiness or evolutionary advantage is an enormous materialist fantasy.  For them, truth is the equivalent of a magical commodity capable of overriding, transforming and guiding physico-chemical processes, and they have utter faith in its ability confer both immediate and long-term benefits to them and humanity.  One wonders if materialists ever thought that, in an actual materialist world, perhaps an illusion of self working under the illusion of self-will with chemically-caused thoughts might actually require false beliefs in order to function successfully and thrive in the factual world, and that is why such beliefs are so widespread and so pervasive historically?

Well, no.  Because whether they admit it or not, whether they realize it or not, they still think truth is in itself some sort of transcendental, supernatural commodity that fundamentally matters and necessarily affects our lives in a positive way if we can deliberately ascertain it and live by it.

 

 

 

 

Comments
I attempted to read the evo-psych paper a level down from that but gave up shortly.
For an evolutionary psychologist, the beer-drinking variation activates our highly evolved ability to tell when someone is breaking a “social contract” rule.
Teleological language ("highly evolved") violates evolutionary theory. Nothing needs to be (or is) more "highly" or "lowly" evolved. Whatever is needed for survival and reproduction is sufficient.
The concept may even seem self-evident: what other than a ‘cognitive’ niche will explain the unprecedented tripling in brain size in a mere 2 million years?
Circular argument in this rhetoric. We assume evolution did it. Then, "what other than evolution can explain it"?
Egalitarianism and cooperation appear to be mutually reinforcing adaptations (figure 1), insofar as the deep levels of cooperative effort outlined earlier are amply rewarded by the multiple forms of egalitarian sharing.
Reward feedback and "deep levels of cooperative effort" are as the authors state "more sophisticated". These are anti-evolutionary outcomes. Greater organization and cooperation is much more costly. Evolution would necessarily tend to the less-costly, less sophisticated means of survival and reproduction. Egalitarian sharing would be a means of preserving the species as an identity - which fights against the development of new species. It assumes that organisms know and care about their own species - even enough for costly, shared activities which involve rules (and avoidance of rule-breaking).Silver Asiatic
November 8, 2016
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Has this logic puzzle been posted here before? I saw it on Hacker's News yesterday:
In one version of the task, one subject (...) is presented with four cards lying flat on a table, each with a single-digit number on one face and one of two colors on the other. Let’s imagine that you’re Wason’s subject. The first and second cards you see are a five and an eight; the third and fourth cards are blue and green, respectively. *** Wason tells you that if a card shows an even number on one face, then its opposite face is blue. Which cards must you turn over in order to test the truth of his proposition, without turning over any unnecessary cards?
Here's an image of the cards we are presented. More that 90% of the subjects presented with this problem gave incorrect solutions, which I find a little surprising.daveS
November 8, 2016
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wd400,
Well, you disagreed with in 548 and flat out said 0.999… wasn’t the same as 1 in 496. But glad you are now on the right side.
After I *proved* 0.999... = 1, what did I demonstrate about the expansion of 0.999... ? How many terms are there?
I’m still waiting for the relevance.
Your wait would be shorter if you read my post 556. So what does the first body sentence of this link say? http://spot.pcc.edu/math/clm/section-ratios-of-infinities.html Please don't simply evade the question. -QQuerius
November 6, 2016
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Speaking of clarity, "less than clear" in the last sentence.daveS
November 4, 2016
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Querius,
My *original* point used an arbitrarily large, later infinite circle and Pi to create a purposely and *admittedly fallacious* argument that supposedly “proved” that curved space was not possible so I could illustrate how easy it is to misapply mathematics to space-time.
I certainly understood your original point. If you had presented a clear argument based on correct mathematics that led to absurdity, that would be one thing. But some of your arguments have been less that clear and not all the mathematics has been correct, so I don't find your critique very compelling.daveS
November 4, 2016
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No argument here—and it was actually never intended to be the argument.
Well, you disagreed with in 548 and flat out said 0.999... wasn't the same as 1 in 496. But glad you are now on the right side. I'm still waiting for the relevance.
daveS, not realizing that ratios of limits can maintain finite proportions such as Pi (dividing an arbitrarily large circumference by its diameter), claimed that ratios of infinities cannot be finite numbers. So I provided him a link to a helpful website, which he ignored, preferring to argue with me every step of the way. This brings us back to my original point.
I'm really not sure you've read the page you linked, or you've perhaps the comment that you were replyting to. Dave explicitly mentioned a limiting process, and how that was differnt from dividing infinity by infinity. Your link is about limits, not actually dividing infinity by infinity.
My *original* point used an arbitrarily large, later infinite circle and Pi to create a purposely and *admittedly fallacious* argument that supposedly “proved” that curved space was not possible so I could illustrate how easy it is to misapply mathematics to space-time. daveS argued against this illustration not realizing that this was exactly my point in rebutting his use of analogy to try to map an infinite number line to “infinite time” (actually space-time).
I don't think your example proved anything -- I find it almost impossible to extract any meaning from any of it.
Gödel’s theorems in which Gödel showed that not all true statements are provable in any single mathematical system apply in this case, because it involves a mathematical system being applied to space-time.
I'm not going to enter in a correspondence on this, as I have better things to do with my life. But, this is not related to Godel, whose results are about axiomatic systems not physics.
I didn’t think this would be that hard to understand, but his head exploded, splattering blather all over the place.
I can only suggest you try to write more clearly and precisely.wd400
November 4, 2016
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wd400, No argument here—and it was actually never intended to be the argument. Working backwards . . . The expansion of the number 0.999… intrinsically implies a limit. I introduced 0.999. . . by first proving that this expression was equivalent to 1 simply by multiplying it by 10 and subtracting the original number. 10n – n = 9, therefore n= 1. My point was that there are an infinite number of 9s in the number, or terms in its expansion if you prefer, and that dealing with infinities can be deceiving. I’d assumed that this would be a fairly obvious point, apparently except to an individual hell-bent on disagreeing everything I presented. This brings us to the previous point. daveS, not realizing that ratios of limits can maintain finite proportions such as Pi (dividing an arbitrarily large circumference by its diameter), claimed that ratios of infinities cannot be finite numbers. So I provided him a link to a helpful website, which he ignored, preferring to argue with me every step of the way. This brings us back to my original point. My *original* point used an arbitrarily large, later infinite circle and Pi to create a purposely and *admittedly fallacious* argument that supposedly “proved” that curved space was not possible so I could illustrate how easy it is to misapply mathematics to space-time. daveS argued against this illustration not realizing that this was exactly my point in rebutting his use of analogy to try to map an infinite number line to “infinite time” (actually space-time). Gödel’s theorems in which Gödel showed that not all true statements are provable in any single mathematical system apply in this case, because it involves a mathematical system being applied to space-time. I didn’t think this would be that hard to understand, but his head exploded, splattering blather all over the place. -QQuerius
November 4, 2016
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DS, yes, on understanding this is a limit value. KFkairosfocus
November 4, 2016
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KF,
DS, notice that tell-tale ellipsis, 0.999 . . . ? KF
Yes. I didn't misrepresent your position, did I? I believe we both agree the value of the expression 0.999... is the real number 1 (under the conventional interpretation).daveS
November 4, 2016
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Querius,
Clueless blather. I already proved earlier that 0.999… = 1.
But you stated this earlier:
The sequence 0.999… is an infinite series and is asymptotic to 1. The LIMIT of 0.999… is 1, but 0.999… is not the same as 1.
which suggests to me that you believe that 0.999... and 1 are not equal. Would you mind clarifying?
What’s 3t^2+5t equal to as t -> infinity ?
3t^2 + 5t increases without bound as t approaches infinity. The limit does not exist. Hence we say that the limit as t approaches infinity of 3t^2 + 5t equals infinity.daveS
November 4, 2016
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You have to be precise when you talk about aths. If "expansion" means the decimal expansion and 0.99.. contains infinitely many 9s after the decimal point then that number doesn't tend to anything (any mor than 2 or pi do). It's an alternative way of writing 1. Actually, your later example proves this. The limit of the sequence 0.9 + 0.09 + 0.009 + … Is surely 0.999... (there's a delta for every epsilon). That number can also be written as one. I still don't see the relevance of any of this though. Your link describes exactly what dave discussed in 512: a limiting process rather than actually division of infinities. (I remind you, this started because you made a claim about an "infinite circle", not a limit of a process).wd400
November 4, 2016
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DS, notice that tell-tale ellipsis, 0.999 . . . ? KFkairosfocus
November 4, 2016
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Clueless blather. I already proved earlier that 0.999... = 1. What's 3t^2+5t equal to as t -> infinity ? Let's hear from wd400. I'm done with you. -QQuerius
November 3, 2016
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Querius,
The expansion of 0.999… is as both kairosfocus and daveS noted: 0.9 + 0.09 + 0.009 + …
Both KF and I agree that 0.999... is conventionally interpreted to mean the sum of that series, so it is correct to say that 0.999... = 1. BTW, do you notice that nowhere on that page is the "quotient" ∞/∞ calculated? You don't see ∞/∞ = -3/5 do you? In fact, the example demonstrates how to convert the fraction to an equivalent form where the limits of the numerator and denominator are finite so that you can solve the problem. The expression ∞/∞ does not tell you what the limit is (that's why it's "indeterminate").daveS
November 3, 2016
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wd400 @541,
The expansion is 1. It’s another representation of the save number.
No, that's not correct. The expansion of 0.999... is as both kairosfocus and daveS noted: 0.9 + 0.09 + 0.009 + ... The number of terms is infinite. The sum as added is asymptotic to 1, or the limit is 1.
Let me know what this has to do with dividing infinity by infinity.
Of course. Read the first line of body text from this link and let us know what it says: http://spot.pcc.edu/math/clm/section-ratios-of-infinities.html Once I wrestle you into accepting commonly accepted mathematics, we can proceed from there. However, I should point out that everyone can see how resistant you are to agreeing with even trivial truths. -QQuerius
November 3, 2016
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KF, So we apparently agree that the past is finite if and only if there exists some natural number M such that all past moments occurred less than M years ago.daveS
November 3, 2016
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DS, if a given value is within a bound that is also a natural number it is finite and it is -- by the first point -- bounded. The issue is then, what does it mean not to be bounded by any finite value k that is succeeded by k+1, k+2 etc? The answer lies in that etc. Namely, that there is an endless onward succession that goes beyond any bound by that unending-ness. This is where the infinite is to be found and it is also why a transfinite span cannot be traversed in specific, finite stage steps. And it is this unpacking of the dynamics of being beyond boundedness that is the heart of what I have argued. Hiding the dynamics under clever summary words does not make such go away. KFkairosfocus
November 3, 2016
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KF, A correction to #544:
My question really has more to do with whether bounded implies finite.
Please strike that. Your statement "finite implies bounded" is in fact what I am interested in. That's because the contrapositive is "unbounded implies infinite", which I believe you don't actually agree with (but I do, of course).daveS
November 3, 2016
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KF,
DS, finite implies bounded. In this case, that there is some finite k beyond which there are no actually once present and now past stages. The value k in years for convenience would then be within some particular finite number M, which can itself be endlessly exceeded by M+1, M+2 etc taking M as a counting number.
My question really has more to do with whether bounded implies finite. Can you tell me whether the definition I proposed in #533 is incorrect on not? I request that somewhere in your response you answer with "yes" or "no". Regarding this part of your answer to Querius, I completely agree:
There is a very valid point that we can never actually complete the endless sequence of partial sums for: x = 9/10 + 9/100 + 9/1000 + . . . . But of course, we may find its limit, which is 1. Then, we may express the result as 0.999 . . . as a conventional way to sum up the underlying limit based process.
daveS
November 3, 2016
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PS: Notice the role of ellipses of endlessness.kairosfocus
November 3, 2016
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SA, yes, it is sad. I particularly liked your summary point:
As I pointed out in 518, if all distances in the collection are finite, then the quality of infinitude does not exist in the collection and it would not be correct to consider it an infinite past.
In this case, distance is a metaphor for -- separation in time, -- counted in appropriate units, -- for finitely large stages, -- in a causally cumulative chain, -- from past to present. (And yes, that is complex but each factor is relevant to a sound understanding.) DS, finite implies bounded. In this case, that there is some finite k beyond which there are no actually once present and now past stages. The value k in years for convenience would then be within some particular finite number M, which can itself be endlessly exceeded by M+1, M+2 etc taking M as a counting number. Q, There is a very valid point that we can never actually complete the endless sequence of partial sums for: x = 9/10 + 9/100 + 9/1000 + . . . . But of course, we may find its limit, which is 1. Then, we may express the result as 0.999 . . . as a conventional way to sum up the underlying limit based process. The difference between (a) an actually completed transfinite process and (b) the logic of endless continuation yielding a limit by virtue of -- beyond a partial sum sequence point say n, -- the difference between the PS and the limit L for further values d -- will always be lower than some value e, and -- this can be used to prove ultimate convergence to L . . . is apparently not fully appreciated as a means by which we finite and bounded creatures deal with the infinite by means of what we can actually implement, a finite process plus a logic that points to what would happen with the actual ideal infinite. Then in the real physical world, once we pop in masses, world lines deviate from Euclidean straight lines, which would be approximated by paths taken by light. Methinks we are in danger of becoming like a spider caught in its own web. KFkairosfocus
November 3, 2016
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The expansion is 1. It's another representation of the save number. Let me know what this has to do with dividing infinity by infinity.wd400
November 2, 2016
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wd400, Are the number of terms in 0.999... infinite? So the expansion of 0.999... is asymptotic to 1, right? -Q P.S. daveS, you had your chance.Querius
November 2, 2016
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Querius, Since you're bringing up this question again, here's one for you: What is the non-terminating decimal expansion for the real number 1? This page might be helpful.daveS
November 2, 2016
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If 0.999... is the decimal expansion of a number then it is another way of writing 1 (as there is no number between them).wd400
November 2, 2016
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wd400, Well, let's see. Does 0.999... equal 1? -QQuerius
November 2, 2016
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Just so I have this right, the "untenable position" here is that the limit of the ratio of expressions that increase without bound is not the same thing as the result of dividing infinity by infinity?wd400
November 2, 2016
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Thanks kairosfocus and Silver Asiatic, As you can see daveS and wd400 don't understand that the determinate ratios of limits approaching infinity or zero maintain their values, much less understand the effects of space-time curvature on the measured ratio of Pi. Even when they're clearly wrong and their parrot has expired, passed on, pushed up daisies, kicked the bucket, and is no more, they still desperately cling to their untenable position just as they do to Darwinism despite all the evidence to the contrary. What's particularly ironic is that my original point was precisely that these types of mathematical relationships should not be applied to reality, so the more they argue, the deeper the hole they're digging to everyone's amusement. Anyway, I guess you can see the futility of imagining an intelligent discourse with them due to the ideological poisoning and hardening of their argumentaries which now forces them to release clouds of obfuscatory ink in a grand display of octopussary. ;-) -QQuerius
November 2, 2016
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KF
Otherwise subtly infinite has become a synonym for finite, as the claim “all past times are only finitely remote” implies.
True. Starting from the present and working backwards actually transforms an infinite past into a potential infinite future and that would be incorrect. An infinite past is not merely potentially infinite, but rather an actual infinite. Beginningless rather than endless. If an infinite past is to have meaning there must be points in the collection that are at an infinite distance from some other. As I pointed out in 518, if all distances in the collection are finite, then the quality of infinitude does not exist in the collection and it would not be correct to consider it an infinite past.Silver Asiatic
November 2, 2016
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KF,
DS, ex hypothesi of an infinite, completed actual past there must be once present times or stages that have now receded into the transfintitely remote past, if infinite is to have any meaning. Otherwise subtly infinite has become a synonym for finite, as the claim “all past times are only finitely remote” implies. KF
Is it the case, therefore that my characterization of a finite past is incorrect? For reference:
The past is finite if and only if there exists some natural number M such that all past moments occurred less than M years ago.
daveS
November 2, 2016
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