Uncommon Descent Serving The Intelligent Design Community

Atheists Believe “Truth” Has Magical Properties

Share
Facebook
Twitter
LinkedIn
Flipboard
Print
Email

At comment 60 in this thread about self-described atheistic materialists who want portray themselves as being moral yet having no basis by which to be moral in any objective sense, Seversky says in response:

“However, it is a choice between able to be good in a way that actually means something and actually matters,…” to whom? That’s always the unspoken part of such a claim. Meaning only exists in the mind of the beholder and something or some one only matters to some one. Believers fell better if they believe that their lives have meaning and matter, which means they need a Creator to whom they matter.

Notice that, according to Seversky, meaning is an entirely subective pheonomena. IOW, in Seversky’s worldview, being good an entirely subjective narrative.  It only exists in a person’s mind.  There is no means by which anyone can be “good” in a way that is objectively valid and objectively meaningful (meaning, it is good to the mind that is the ground of existence, or god).

In the very next paragraph of his response, Seversky attempts to portray an atheist’s happiness as somehow more real than a theist’s happiness, as if the quality or value of ones experience of happiness would be increased if it referred to something objectively real. He uses a quote from Karl Marx to attempt to get his point across:

The abolition of religion as the illusory happiness of the people is the demand for their real happiness. To call on them to give up their illusions about their condition is to call on them to give up a condition that requires illusions. The criticism of religion is, therefore, in embryo, the criticism of that vale of tears of which religion is the halo.

So, after I make the point that being good would have more validity and meaning if it referred to an objectively real commodity, Seversky shoots that down by insisting that being “good” can only be a subjective narrative. Yet, he seems to think that happiness – which which would obviously also be a subjective state of mind in his worldview – can be of a higher quality if it was generated by a correspondence to objective reality (giving up illusions, as Marx said).

In that thread’s OP I said:

This is the tragic nature of the good, moral atheist; they want their good acts to be somehow more real or better than an act a religious fanatic considers and feels is good, but alas, under the logical ramifications of atheistic materialism, their good acts would be the factual, physico-chemical equivalents of Jihadis who felt they were doing good by driving planes into buildings. There is no source distinction between any act anyone does.

Seversky seems to agree with this about morality, but is apparently holding on to the idea that happiness is somehow different; that the happiness generated by physico-chemical processes under an atheist/materialist narrative is somehow of better quality than the happiness experienced by theists, as if the happenstance correspondence of one set of chemically-produced beliefs to physical reality would necessarily mean a concomitant better quality of happiness.  Seversky is apparently asserting that the quality of ones mental state of happiness is proportional to how closely ones beliefs happen to comport with physical reality.  Seversky is free to try and support this assertion, but we all know he cannot.  All this can possibly be is part of Seversky’s anti-theistic narrative; there’s no reason (that I know of) to believe that a theist’s happiness is somehow of less quality than an atheist’s.  Nor is there any reason to believe that theism confers any evolutionary disadvantage.

Under atheistic materialism, there are no bonus points after you die for  believing things that happen to be true, or that happen to correspond to factual reality.  Seversky’s only recourse then, in countering what he refers to as my “Pascal’s Wager” style argument, is that atheistic materialism somehow bestows a happiness quality advantage during life. Perhaps he might extend that argument to include some other ways that atheistic materialism produces some real-world experiential advantage. I’d like to see him or any other atheistic materialist try to make that argument either through logic or some kind of scientific evidence.  It is nothing more than a materialist myth.

The theme here is that for atheistic/materialists it appears to be important to their mythic narrative that atheistic/materialism conveys upon them some sort of meaningful experiential advantage over theists; that somehow, in some real sense, atheism is superior to theism and that it somehow demonstrates some sort of individual superiority (at least in the sense of setting aside “illusions” – which is a recurring theme.). The problem is that the nature of their worldview logically precludes that from even possibly being the case; they cannot deliberately understand and accept true things because their consciousness, sense of free will and responsibility are illusions generated by uncaring matter.

Note how the illusion of self, self-determination and free will that refers to itself as “Seversky” claims that illusions such as he can “set aside” false,  illusory beliefs and reap some kind of factual benefit.  This is an enormous metaphysical myth – that somehow something that is itself an illusion can set aside illusions and see and understand “the truth”, and that such a recognition will be somehow substantively rewarded in some way that escapes other illusions of self that refer to themselves as theists, as if some illusions of self are better than other illusions of self, and as if such a difference substantively matters.

If atheistic materialism is true, then we all have the beliefs we have and act the way we act because such things are caused by physico-chemical forces that have no regard for the truth-value of such thoughts and beliefs.  Additionally, there is no “I” that has supernatural power over what these materials and forces happen to generate.  It’s not like we would have the power to stop a physical process from producing a false belief because that belief is false; our idea that it is false would also be a sensation produced by the same blind physico-chemical forces that produced the false belief in the first place.  Those forces equally produce true and false beliefs and thoughts (wrt factual reality) and also generate our ideas that such thoughts are true and false.  If factually true beliefs happen to coexist with a higher-quality experience of happiness, how on Earth would one evidence such a claim, or be confident that the view of the evidence and logic wasn’t actually false?

It’s far more likely (under Seversky’s worldview) that false beliefs confer some sort of experiential advantage because, if atheistic materialism is true, that is what nature has actually selected for – the supposedly false belief that god and/or a supernatural world exists.  Also, Seversky seems to think that it is important to have true beliefs rather than false ones; but why? Surely he realizes there is no factual basis for the claim that holding a true beliefs confers a better quality of experiential happiness.  Why bother defending the idea that if a programmed biological automaton happens to think things in correspondence with reality that this also happens to correspond with a better quality of (ultimately) illusory happiness? So what if it does?  If Seversky’s worldview is true, our levels of happiness are entirely caused by forces beyond our illusory sense of control and self-determination. In fact, individual happiness itself is an illusory experience of an illusory self; yet Seversky claims the sense of happiness of one illusion of selfhood is less illusory than that experienced by another illusion of selfhood.

What the take-home point here is that Seversky and others, even though they assert themselves atheistic materialists, still argue and act as if they and others have some supernatural power to deliberately discern true beliefs from false and deliberately overpower the physico-chemical processes of the brain to force them to correspond to true beliefs; that true beliefs somehow magically confer a better quality of experiential happiness; that true beliefs are somehow magically necessary or important when it comes to life and the human species.  It is just as likely that false beliefs are necessary both to long-term survival and for higher quality experience of happiness, and that atheistic materialism is an evolutionary dead-end that cannot compete with religious faith when it comes to factually thriving in the real world because it corresponds to physical reality.

The idea that “truth” can be deliberately obtained, forced onto physico-chemical processes, and that it confers upon illusory “selves” a higher quality happiness or evolutionary advantage is an enormous materialist fantasy.  For them, truth is the equivalent of a magical commodity capable of overriding, transforming and guiding physico-chemical processes, and they have utter faith in its ability confer both immediate and long-term benefits to them and humanity.  One wonders if materialists ever thought that, in an actual materialist world, perhaps an illusion of self working under the illusion of self-will with chemically-caused thoughts might actually require false beliefs in order to function successfully and thrive in the factual world, and that is why such beliefs are so widespread and so pervasive historically?

Well, no.  Because whether they admit it or not, whether they realize it or not, they still think truth is in itself some sort of transcendental, supernatural commodity that fundamentally matters and necessarily affects our lives in a positive way if we can deliberately ascertain it and live by it.

 

 

 

 

Comments
Silver Asiatic @433, Exactly--excellent points all. There are so many problems mapping mathematics to the real world, it simply becomes an exercise in futility. Or a corollary to your description in 441 . . . If you pick an arbitrary point on an infinite line and add one to it, the line in either direction is still infinite, "proving" that time does not advance. Or to use Cantor's notation, m + 1 = m. -QQuerius
October 21, 2016
October
10
Oct
21
21
2016
10:57 PM
10
10
57
PM
PDT
A mathematical paradox, similar to subtracting all the odd numbers and ending up with an infinite ... but perhaps better because it's not possible to remove "all" (which would imply a finite quantity) from an infinite is: With an infinite past, it would not be possible to calculate a "percentage of time existing" for any given event except for eternal entities. To determine a proportion of time from the infinite past would require a finite value in the denominator. For example, what percentage of time from the infinite past does the age of our universe represent? Or, what thing has existed for at least 1/10 of time, but not for all time? That would be impossible because you can't get 1/10 of an infinite past. If the past was finite, even if the future was potentially infinite, you could calculate it. Every day would be a certain % of time, and that percent would always get smaller, but would always be measurable. Measuring a proportion of the infinite past, however, is impossible mathematically. This past year, for example, "should be" some percentage of time but it really cannot be.Silver Asiatic
October 21, 2016
October
10
Oct
21
21
2016
01:39 PM
1
01
39
PM
PDT
Thanks, Ben, that's what I was thinking as well.daveS
October 21, 2016
October
10
Oct
21
21
2016
12:40 PM
12
12
40
PM
PDT
So, if time is discrete in the sense described in comment 438, then I don't see how Pruss's method of argument can be used to derive a contradiction in this case. That's what I should have said earlier.Ben
October 21, 2016
October
10
Oct
21
21
2016
11:43 AM
11
11
43
AM
PDT
Regarding the discrete time case, do you have in mind a picture where the interval between 8 and 9 AM consists of finitely many...moments, much as 1 second corresponds to 24 frames of 35 mm movie film?
Yes. This is the idea that intervals of time might be composed of chronons, which are indivisible units of time. If this is right, then Pruss's argument runs into the following problem: If a GR wakes up between 8 and 9 at time t, and the duration of time between 8 and t is a single chronon, then it's not possible for a GR to wake up at a time strictly between 8 and t on the grounds that no such time exists (contra [p]).
This leads me to wonder what would happen if the first two or several Grim Reapers arrived simultaneously (in either the discrete or continuous case), but I guess that could be dealt with by having them draw lots or something similar.
Or we could just refine the scenario without sacrificing plausibility to guarantee that multiple GRs don't wake up simultaneously.Ben
October 21, 2016
October
10
Oct
21
21
2016
11:31 AM
11
11
31
AM
PDT
Ben, Regarding the discrete time case, do you have in mind a picture where the interval between 8 and 9 AM consists of finitely many (or perhaps infinitely many?) moments, much as 1 second corresponds to 24 frames of 35 mm movie film? This leads me to wonder what would happen if the first two or several Grim Reapers arrived simultaneously (in either the discrete or continuous case), but I guess that could be dealt with by having them draw lots or something similar.daveS
October 21, 2016
October
10
Oct
21
21
2016
11:00 AM
11
11
00
AM
PDT
My initial response is that he actually hasn't shown that it is certain that a Grim Reaper kills you.
Backing up a couple paragraphs, Pruss argues as follows: "Then, you're going to be dead at 9 am, since as long as at least one Grim Reaper wakes up during that time period, you're guaranteed to be dead." However, a key assumption that Pruss neglects to highlight in the quoted passage is that he is presupposing a non-discrete view of time. If time were discrete, then no contradiction follows from accepting (p).Ben
October 21, 2016
October
10
Oct
21
21
2016
10:01 AM
10
10
01
AM
PDT
With the statement, "as long as one Grim Reaper wakes up between 8 and 9 you’re guaranteed to be dead" and with p = for every time after 8 at least one Grim Reaper wakes up in that time, then, logically, it's certain the Grim Reaper kills you. The paradox rests on the notion that "between 8 and 9" is an infinite range that cannot be traversed. I don't see how there could be a first Grim Reaper for "every time" within that one hour (built on the notion that the time can be split infinitely smaller). The only way there could be a first one is if some statement was asserted about the absolute limit of increments that would be included in "every time". But if time worked like a mathematical number line, then there couldn't be any finite limit to the fractions included between 8 and 9. Thus Grim Reapers would forever be waking up and you would both be dead because of that and alive because each Grim Reaper was later than the prior one, on to infinity. Right?Silver Asiatic
October 21, 2016
October
10
Oct
21
21
2016
09:34 AM
9
09
34
AM
PDT
Ben (and anyone else interested), I was doing some background reading before diving into the Koons paper. This Grim Reaper paradox is very cool. The first formulation I landed on, taken from here (with some loss of formatting):
Here is a version of the Grim Reaper paradox. Say that a Grim Reaper is a being that has the following properties: It wakes up at a time between 8 and 9 am, both exclusive, and if you're alive, it instantaneously kills you, and if you're not alive, it doesn't do anything. Suppose there are countably infinitely many Grim Reapers, and before they go to bed for the night, each sets his alarm for a time (not necessarily the same time as the other Reapers) strictly between 8 and 9 am. Suppose, also, that no other kind of death is available for you, and that you're not going to be resurrected that day. Then, you're going to be dead at 9 am, since as long as at least one Grim Reaper wakes up during that time period, you're guaranteed to be dead. Now whether there is a paradox here depends on how the Grim Reapers individually set their alarm clocks. Suppose now that they set them in such a way that the following proposition p is true:
(p) for every time t later than 8 am, at least one of the Grim Reapers woke up strictly between 8 am and t.
Here's a useful Theorem: If the Grim Reapers choose their alarm clock times independently and uniformly over the 8--9 am interval, then P(p) = 1. Now, if p is true, then no Grim Reaper kills you. For suppose that a Grim Reaper who wakes up at some time t1, later than 8 am, kills you. If p is true, there is a Grim Reaper who woke up strictly between 8 am and t1, say at t0. But if so, then you're going to be dead right after t0, and hence the Grim Reaper who woke up at t1 is not going to do anything, since you're dead then. Hence, if p is true, no Grim Reaper kills you. On the other hand, I've shown that it is certain that a Grim Reaper kills you. Hence, if p is true, then no Grim Reaper kills you and a Grim Reaper kills you, which is absurd.
My initial response is that he actually hasn't shown that it is certain that a Grim Reaper kills you. If (p) holds, then there need not be a "first" Grim Reaper (although there could be!).daveS
October 21, 2016
October
10
Oct
21
21
2016
09:09 AM
9
09
09
AM
PDT
Querius
In short, mathematics is a tool that can model reality to an arbitrary degree of precision, but there’s no possible way to prove congruence, and any mathematical system can NEVER be congruent with nature due to (a) the empirical nature of the testing performed, and (b) the proof that there will be behaviors in reality that cannot be modeled in any one mathematical system.
Great points. It leads me to consider that the math (in this case) is not just 'partially correct' but it actually gives a false understanding. I've noticed that the first thing that some will do when considering an infinite past is turn to mathematical models - and they basically stay with that through the various arguments that the math provides. First of all, a number line cannot be equivalent to what we mean as "time", as with an infinite past. A number line can be self-existent and independent. But time necessarily depends on the movement or change in reality. It measures and requires the persistence of existent things that are not time themselves. So, time is not just a sequence of numbers or symbols. Time cannot exist unless objects and forces persist. Simple number lines, or the use of set theory, for example, do not model those relationships.
Not to mention of course the logical gyrations needed to create a mildly plausible explanation of why entropy isn’t maximized after an infinite time period.
This brings me to the points I was trying to raise earlier - building off of the term "maximized". That's actually somewhat (not exactly) the basis of various scenarios like Koons' Grim Reaper and others. The idea is that an infinite always extends to the maximum but never terminates there. With entropy it would be the same, as you mention. Any linear, progressive development or process will reach its maximum state. When an infinite past is assumed to exist, it's easy to forget that any linear process it contains must have reached its maximum possible value before the present. In other words, you cannot reach a discrete point in time where "maximum + 1" had not already occurred. If we look at other qualities like entropy: destruction, speed, refinement, volatility, stasis, strength/weakness of bond -- if any of these moved in a linear, additive process then by the present day, they've reached the maximum possible. Two arguments against this are that there is no finite maximum. All of those values, it would be claimed, are potentially infinite. The other argument that the processes are not linear but rather cyclical. On the first point, if those linear processes were not only actually infinite in the past but potentially infinite in the future, we'd have some unthinkable scenarios in terms of physics. On the second point, something would need to trigger recurring cycles. Finally, even if conceding the possible existence of an infinite past, what caused all of those forces, objects and processes to exist, in exactly the right balance, to be preserved for an infinite span of time?Silver Asiatic
October 21, 2016
October
10
Oct
21
21
2016
05:14 AM
5
05
14
AM
PDT
DS in re 317:
Well, I’m saying that I’m assuming that such a traversal of infinite past time has occurred, and asking for someone to then state what logical contradiction this leads to (when taken in the context of my other assumptions). Is that possible? If you can prove not, then the above argument would work.
The assumption fails due to the stepwise, finite stage causally cumulative process inherent to the temporal order, as has been long since outlined. Such a process cannot actually traverse a span that is transfinite, thus endless. And, temporal duration is inherently a matter of span in time or in quasi-temporal stages between relevant end-points, say t1 and t2, the latter being later. To claim a past that is transfinite, implies that there will always be times that were once the present that are now remotely endlessly past beyond any finite past time t1. This implies that there must be past times such as w in the sequence I have repeatedly used. This then immediately brings up the spanning challenge for reaching some remote but only finitely remote time point or stage k. Skeletally:
P1: Endlessness cannot be traversed in finite stage successive, causally cumulative steps. P2: An infinite duration past implies such a traversal. ___________________________________________ C1: There has been no infinite past C2: We are only warranted to hold that there was a finite past to the world. C3: Thus, it had a finitely remote beginning stage, and is causally dependent. C4: Ultimately, inasmuch as were there ever utter non-being such would forever obtain (which is contradicted by the self-evident fact of an actual world), that dependence traces to a necessary root being for reality.
KFkairosfocus
October 21, 2016
October
10
Oct
21
21
2016
03:45 AM
3
03
45
AM
PDT
AK, in re 406: the problem is incremental, finite stage, stepwise CAUSAL succession. To traverse the past to reach any given present, one has to do just that, move forward in causally successive steps to that point. Then, we have onward stages. To traverse an infinite actual past then becomes a pivotal issue and as I just again cited, this cannot be done in such a stepwise fashion. We can have a potential infinite that is open ended onwards in the forward sense, but we never actually physicallt traverse the transfinite span. KFkairosfocus
October 20, 2016
October
10
Oct
20
20
2016
11:52 PM
11
11
52
PM
PDT
Ben (in re 404), When one projects backwards from the present, reverting to an implicit or explicit ellipsis: sn [now] --> sn-1 . . . s0 [bang] . . . k, k+1, . . . . it may not seem problematic to have a temporal antecedent for any k. But this is slipping in a subtle substitution of the potential as opposed to the actually completed transfinite. The problem is, temporal-causal order does not work that way. Instead, stage by stage, we have a stepwise cumulative causal succession that can be reasonably addressed as finite steps. On this, we have to account for a transfinite, stepwise finite stage causal succession capable of actually traversing the transfinite. That's why, from early on in the thread (cf 65 above), I have consistently put this on the table:
the universe, U exists, in a sequence of states s1, s2 . . . sn, sn+1 etc. We may and do freely ask why, expecting to find a sensible answer. In particular, the observed cosmos credibly had a beginning and the cosmos is clearly highly contingent. These both point to the reasonableness of a cause, ontologically antecedent to and sustaining of such a universe. In this context, something — a world — from utter non-being is an obvious non starter, as were there utter nothing such would forever obtain. Nor, given fine tuning, is blind chance and/or mechanical necessity a plausible answer. This already makes design a serious candidate, indeed the most serious. Now, on infinite past attaining to the present, the same issues obtain as previous discussions indicate. These are so whether or no you may prefer otherwise. Specifically, we have stage-wise causally linked succession of states. Such a chain is inherently incapable of actually traversing and completing an endless span of states in stepwise succession. There is no good reason to hold that such has happened, and there is every good reason to infer that such has not happened, that there was in fact a finitely remote initial condition of the observed cosmos that is not explained on prior chain of succession. That is, there was a beginning and a cause, even through a speculation about a prior multiverse or quantum foam etc. Infinite regress is simply not a good explanation, though it is the only alternative to a beginning, which entails an ontologically prior cause. I simply note that if there were such a succession, at some pointw, it had to have been endlessly remote from the sequence since a useful beginning point, say 13.85 BYA, set as s0, then s1, . . . sn, now. That is, we see (with ellipses of endlessness indicated by FOUR dots): . . . . w+2, w+1, w, w-1, w-2 . . . . k, k-1, . . . s0, s1, s2 . . . sn + –> There is a finite, causally successive stepwise span from s0 to now, no problem. But to get to s0 from w we have to count down across a span that is endlessly extensive. We might as well say: w –> 0, w+1 –>1, etc, . . . . | s0 –> OMEGA, i.e. the order type of the natural numbers as spanned from w. Mathematically, i.e. logically on structure and quantity, we may say that the endlessness of succession can be assigned an order type omega, but that is utterly different from being able to actually stepwise span it and traverse it. No, we see where it would go, and say, okay that endless span has a quantity, omega. We have delivered a logical result on the set as a whole per its logical structure, we have not actually spanned it in causally connected finite stage successve steps. Whereas, by contrast we could say: s0 –> bang s1 –> inflationary period s2 –> first stars s3 –> forming “second generation” stars and associated structures such as galaxies, clouds with high metallicity, etc s4 –> Formation of sol in Milky Way, and associated planets . . . sn –> now (Where we could assign some k as finitely remote actual beginning; what we can warrant per logic of successive cumulative finite stage steps.) KF PS: The challenge of endless traverse can be seen by postulating two tapes punched at an even finite interval, say 0.1 inch, starting left and endlessly going right. One pink, P and the other blue B. Advance P by some arbitrarily large but finite k steps, such that k+1, k+2, . . . . are now in 1:1 match with B at 0, 1, 2 . . . . where both are still endless to the right. The import is, endlessness is definable on terms of such a k, k+1 etc having no effect on the continuation to the right and continued 1:1 match of P and B. As a direct implication, at any finite stage k, there is still an endless succession k+1, k+2 etc still to go, proposed finite stage stepwise spanning of endlessness is futile.
That is one of the key things you need to answer. KFkairosfocus
October 20, 2016
October
10
Oct
20
20
2016
11:41 PM
11
11
41
PM
PDT
Silver Asiatic @418, Consider also the impact of Gödel’s incompleteness theorems on mapping mathematical concepts onto the real world. The conclusion is that at best, there will be true statements undetectable by the mathematical system. It's also likely that any mathematical system will include relationships that can be falsified in nature. In short, mathematics is a tool that can model reality to an arbitrary degree of precision, but there's no possible way to prove congruence, and any mathematical system can NEVER be congruent with nature due to (a) the empirical nature of the testing performed, and (b) the proof that there will be behaviors in reality that cannot be modeled in any one mathematical system. This leaves speculations and arguments about infinities in the realm of pure fantasy along with magical fairies and rainbow unicorns. Not to mention of course the logical gyrations needed to create a mildly plausible explanation of why entropy isn't maximized after an infinite time period. It's OK math, but absurd physics. -QQuerius
October 20, 2016
October
10
Oct
20
20
2016
09:34 PM
9
09
34
PM
PDT
Thanks, Ben, that's helpful---I think I understand the thrust of the argument better now. I'll read the other paper over the weekend. Thanks for the Koons paper as well, it looks quite interesting.daveS
October 20, 2016
October
10
Oct
20
20
2016
07:01 PM
7
07
01
PM
PDT
You’re certainly welcome, and thanks for the detailed response. I’ll have to read the other paper and look up the references as well.
Hope you find it helpful.
Is the MD scenario compatible with an infinite past in a way that the beginningless Tristam Shandy scenario is not?
The MD scenario and the backwards Tristram Shandy scenario are both incompatible with an infinite past for pretty much the same reason. Indeed, it's that very incompatibility that allows me to conclude from the coherence (or logical possibility) of the MD scenario that the series of past days must be finite. Again, I tried to make all this easier to understand in the second paper, so do give section three of that paper a try. One more thing, I am not the only person who argues against an infinite past by appealing to what should be causally possible. Check out this paper by Koons for a very different approach involving Grim Reapers.Ben
October 20, 2016
October
10
Oct
20
20
2016
06:15 PM
6
06
15
PM
PDT
Ben, You're certainly welcome, and thanks for the detailed response. I'll have to read the other paper and look up the references as well. One quick question regarding this:
So, others have already demonstrated that a backwards Tristram Shandy scenario is not compatible with an infinite past (see the references I give in the first paper), but it still remained to show that such a scenario should be considered coherent (or logically possible) in order to have an argument against an infinite past (per Morriston).
Is the MD scenario compatible with an infinite past in a way that the beginningless Tristam Shandy scenario is not?daveS
October 20, 2016
October
10
Oct
20
20
2016
04:52 PM
4
04
52
PM
PDT
First of all, thank you so much for taking the time to engage my work, daveS. I really appreciate it!
My question has to do with premise (2). How do I know I have the right to expect the Methuselah's Diary scenario (or the beginningless Tristam Shandy scenario) to be tenable, assuming an infinite past?
I take it as obvious that (2) follows if the Methuselah's Diary (hereafter, MD) scenario is seen to be coherent (or logically consistent), as the MD scenario provides us with the right sort of mapping. But why think that the MD scenario is coherent? I address this issue explicitly in the second paper as follows:
But now notice that Methuselah’s powers of memory and dispositions concerning his diary, although somewhat idealized in the former case and contrived in the latter case, are very much like the sorts of powers and dispositions we could have had (and coherently exercised) if we had Methuselah’s life span, which suggests that the aforementioned powers and dispositions ascribed to him form a coherent scenario. (TANKCA, p. 4)
The idea is that since we are in a position to determine what is possible for a being with powers and dispositional capacities similar to our own, we can see that the MD scenario is coherent. This is the sort of modal judgment that we make when we, for example, speculate as to what could have happened to someone or other during some period of time that has already occurred in the past. Also, this is where the metaphysics comes in. The whole point of this argument is to show that an infinite past is inconsistent with what we know to be causally possible for a being like ourselves. Hence, I want to say that the past cannot be infinite on account of the modal structure of the world and not because of some conceptual difficulty with our notion of infinity.
My conclusion after reading about the beginningless Tristam Shandy example is that if you assume Tristam is currently writing about his past, then finitely many years ago*, he had to have been writing about his future, which certainly should not be allowed. In other words, the "normal" Tristam Shandy example cannot be extended into an infinite past, even if an infinite past makes perfect sense.
So, others have already demonstrated that a backwards Tristram Shandy scenario is not compatible with an infinite past (see the references I give in the first paper), but it still remained to show that such a scenario should be considered coherent (or logically possible) in order to have an argument against an infinite past (per Morriston). The advance in the MD scenario is that we can reconstruct a kind of backwards Tristram Shandy scenario via the assignment of powers and diary-keeping dispositions that an individual like ourselves could have had (and coherently exercised) during the relevant series of past days, which allows us to conclude that the relevant scenario can be judged coherent (or logically possible).Ben
October 20, 2016
October
10
Oct
20
20
2016
03:29 PM
3
03
29
PM
PDT
PS to my #423: I just noticed I mistakenly read the "D" at the end of premise (1) as "D_F", but I think my questions still make sense.daveS
October 20, 2016
October
10
Oct
20
20
2016
01:51 PM
1
01
51
PM
PDT
Thanks, Ben. I'm looking at section II. Methusaleh's Diary. I believe I follow your proof of premise (1); for example I see that there does not exist a function f mapping the negative integers to the negative integers such that (i) f(d) <= d for all d and (ii) f(d + 2) = f(d) + 1 for d <= -3. If I've misinterpreted anything, please let me know. My question has to do with premise (2). How do I know I have the right to expect the Methuselah's Diary scenario (or the beginningless Tristam Shandy scenario) to be tenable, assuming an infinite past? My conclusion after reading about the beginningless Tristam Shandy example is that if you assume Tristam is currently writing about his past, then finitely many years ago*, he had to have been writing about his future, which certainly should not be allowed. In other words, the "normal" Tristam Shandy example cannot be extended into an infinite past, even if an infinite past makes perfect sense. As an analogy, suppose I observe that some quantity (which must always be positive, such as the water depth in a lake) is increasing linearly. Then I certainly cannot hypothesize that the water level has been increasing linearly throughout an infinite past. But of course this doesn't mean the past cannot be infinite. *I am making some assumptions about the order type of the set of past days, namely that it is not something truly bizarre such as that of (..., -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, ..., -2, -1, 0), i.e., the integers "followed" by another copy of the negative integers.daveS
October 20, 2016
October
10
Oct
20
20
2016
12:28 PM
12
12
28
PM
PDT
May we ask questions about your Methuselah’s Diary paper?
Sure. I don't mind answering questions about either paper.Ben
October 20, 2016
October
10
Oct
20
20
2016
11:14 AM
11
11
14
AM
PDT
Ben, May we ask questions about your Methuselah's Diary paper?daveS
October 20, 2016
October
10
Oct
20
20
2016
10:41 AM
10
10
41
AM
PDT
For example, a number line in space (or the curvature of space) cannot be continuous by the mathematical definition of continuous due to the existence of the Planck length.
I never meant to suggest that the series of past times is akin to a literal continuum; indeed, the arguments I give in the papers referenced in comment 395 entail that such cannot be the case. All I am saying is that if the past is infinite, then there's no strictly mathematical problem with this notion. This means that I don't think one can successfully argue against an infinite past by showing that the very notion of an infinite past is conceptually incoherent/contradictory.Ben
October 20, 2016
October
10
Oct
20
20
2016
08:51 AM
8
08
51
AM
PDT
What seems to be missing, in the general notion, is that logic is also required in the metaphysical and physical understandings. It would be better, in my view, to say “it is illogical on metaphysical or physical grounds”, than merely to say “strictly speaking it is logical”. In other words, it sounds as if logic and metaphysical analysis are entirely separate the other way.
Based on these remarks, I suspect that whatever disagreement we might have is more a matter of semantics than substance, and I am not interested in pursuing a lengthy back-and-forth over how best to word things. This sort of problem is common in philosophy since the discipline lacks an agreed upon foundation on which to theorize, with the latest academic conventions constantly in flux. So please don't take this as a criticism of your own preferred way of discussing these matters.Ben
October 20, 2016
October
10
Oct
20
20
2016
08:29 AM
8
08
29
AM
PDT
Querius
Additionally, other mathematical systems such as those studied in non-Euclidean mathematics cannot be applied wholesale to the real world either. Mathematics is undeniably a logical structure, but it’s not reality.
Agreed. As I see it, that's the critical understanding that is missed. The argument has been, in several instances, "an infinite past is perfectly consistent with mathematical analysis". But that's kind of a bait and switch. The claim is about a "real infinite past".Silver Asiatic
October 20, 2016
October
10
Oct
20
20
2016
05:34 AM
5
05
34
AM
PDT
Ben
For a discussion of these modalities–logical, metaphysical, and physical–check out this SEP article. These distinctions are fairly common in the philosophical literature.
That was a very good reference, thank you. As I see it, the distinction between the strictly logical and the other two categories is interesting, but not very useful in a discussion like this. Beyond that, I'd say that it adds more ambiguity than clarity. What seems to be missing, in the general notion, is that logic is also required in the metaphysical and physical understandings. It would be better, in my view, to say "it is illogical on metaphysical or physical grounds", than merely to say "strictly speaking it is logical". In other words, it sounds as if logic and metaphysical analysis are entirely separate the other way. We can build a syllogism which shows that elephants flying over Los Angeles is illogical. We arrive, in your terms, at a 'metaphysical (or physical) absurdity'. True. That conclusion is driven by logic, and the nature of reality or physics, etc. So, that's where I'd question whether the term "strictly speaking it is logical" really works, since we can show it is illogical. This is just semantics and I'm just a layman arguing with philosophical terminology -- but sometimes even laymen can bring some new insights. Perhaps instead of "strictly speaking", it could be something like, using abstract logic alone - or the term the article uses "sheer logic" alone. Again, I don't find that very useful since the discussion focused on the metaphysical and physical reality of an infinite past. For example, if the first response to my claim that there are presently 5 million elephants flying over Los Angeles was that "in terms of sheer logic there is nothing wrong with that claim", I'd find a problem with that - at least one personal grounds. But it does show (as I argued above and others opposed) that "correct logic" can result in absurd conclusions (metaphysically). The very same is true with mathematics. Correct math can result in absurdities and contradictions in light of what is real. In any case, in spite of all of that - thank you for a very informative resource! I learned quite a lot from it.Silver Asiatic
October 20, 2016
October
10
Oct
20
20
2016
04:58 AM
4
04
58
AM
PDT
Ben,
In particular, there is nothing logically problematic with the notion of an infinite past that is totally ordered by the earlier than relation anymore than with the notion of the integers and/or real line being totally ordered by the less than relation.
The problem with your statement is that you cannot depend on successfully applying the logic of mathematics to the real world. For example, a number line in space (or the curvature of space) cannot be continuous by the mathematical definition of continuous due to the existence of the Planck length. Additionally, other mathematical systems such as those studied in non-Euclidean mathematics cannot be applied wholesale to the real world either. Mathematics is undeniably a logical structure, but it’s not reality. When you think about it, Kurt Gödel's incompleteness theorems also falsify the notion of a complete mathematical description of reality.
Essentially, all models are wrong, but some are useful. -George E.P. Box
-QQuerius
October 19, 2016
October
10
Oct
19
19
2016
06:57 PM
6
06
57
PM
PDT
If someone said that there are actually 5 million elephants flying, under their own power, over the city of Los Angeles right now — wouldn’t we conclude that is illogical, even though abstractly, it’s the same as any collection of 5 million imaginary points?
In the strictest sense, I would not say that the notion of five million elephants flying over Los Angeles is logically absurd. The problem with this notion is not that it contradicts the axioms of modern set theory, for example. However, I would say that the notion of a flying elephant is metaphysically absurd all by itself since elephants obviously lack the capacity to fly. Moreover, I can also say that the notion of five million elephants flying over Los Angeles is physically impossible on the grounds that there aren't five million elephants left on the planet. For a discussion of these modalities--logical, metaphysical, and physical--check out this SEP article. These distinctions are fairly common in the philosophical literature.Ben
October 19, 2016
October
10
Oct
19
19
2016
02:31 PM
2
02
31
PM
PDT
Ben
As I said in my previous comment, the problem with an infinite past is not (strictly speaking) a logical one. There is nothing logically amiss with the abstract notion of an infinite past for the same reason that there is nothing logically amiss with our concept of the integers and the real line (and the usual relational structures that we assign to these abstractions). My contention is that if there is a problem with an infinite past then it must be some kind of metaphysical problem, hence your emphasis in saying that infinity cannot be traversed in “real time.”
An infinite past is usually not posed as an abstraction (at least it hasn't been in this discussion thus far). So, whatever logical analysis that is applied to it must be done under the context that we're talking about real time. Would you agree that there is a logical problem when a notion that is proposed as a real event is evaluated as if it is an imaginary abstraction? If someone said that there are actually 5 million elephants flying, under their own power, over the city of Los Angeles right now -- wouldn't we conclude that is illogical, even though abstractly, it's the same as any collection of 5 million imaginary points? If an infinite past is proposed as a non-existent, imaginary concept then I'd think it would be even more difficult (or impossible) to analyze. Why does it need to have any mathematical consistency? Creating an imaginary concept to mimic the symbolic world of math is the opposite of the task, as I see it. Math is supposed to model what is real (or at least give understandings). In any case, I appreciate corrections here. I didn't/don't follow the distinction you're making and I'm very open to the possibility that I misunderstand it.Silver Asiatic
October 19, 2016
October
10
Oct
19
19
2016
01:27 PM
1
01
27
PM
PDT
I just noticed your post #395; your paper also came up in my post #125!
How neat is that! Thank you for mentioning my work at comment 125.Ben
October 19, 2016
October
10
Oct
19
19
2016
12:16 PM
12
12
16
PM
PDT
1 3 4 5 6 7 19

Leave a Reply