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Atheists Believe “Truth” Has Magical Properties

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At comment 60 in this thread about self-described atheistic materialists who want portray themselves as being moral yet having no basis by which to be moral in any objective sense, Seversky says in response:

“However, it is a choice between able to be good in a way that actually means something and actually matters,…” to whom? That’s always the unspoken part of such a claim. Meaning only exists in the mind of the beholder and something or some one only matters to some one. Believers fell better if they believe that their lives have meaning and matter, which means they need a Creator to whom they matter.

Notice that, according to Seversky, meaning is an entirely subective pheonomena. IOW, in Seversky’s worldview, being good an entirely subjective narrative.  It only exists in a person’s mind.  There is no means by which anyone can be “good” in a way that is objectively valid and objectively meaningful (meaning, it is good to the mind that is the ground of existence, or god).

In the very next paragraph of his response, Seversky attempts to portray an atheist’s happiness as somehow more real than a theist’s happiness, as if the quality or value of ones experience of happiness would be increased if it referred to something objectively real. He uses a quote from Karl Marx to attempt to get his point across:

The abolition of religion as the illusory happiness of the people is the demand for their real happiness. To call on them to give up their illusions about their condition is to call on them to give up a condition that requires illusions. The criticism of religion is, therefore, in embryo, the criticism of that vale of tears of which religion is the halo.

So, after I make the point that being good would have more validity and meaning if it referred to an objectively real commodity, Seversky shoots that down by insisting that being “good” can only be a subjective narrative. Yet, he seems to think that happiness – which which would obviously also be a subjective state of mind in his worldview – can be of a higher quality if it was generated by a correspondence to objective reality (giving up illusions, as Marx said).

In that thread’s OP I said:

This is the tragic nature of the good, moral atheist; they want their good acts to be somehow more real or better than an act a religious fanatic considers and feels is good, but alas, under the logical ramifications of atheistic materialism, their good acts would be the factual, physico-chemical equivalents of Jihadis who felt they were doing good by driving planes into buildings. There is no source distinction between any act anyone does.

Seversky seems to agree with this about morality, but is apparently holding on to the idea that happiness is somehow different; that the happiness generated by physico-chemical processes under an atheist/materialist narrative is somehow of better quality than the happiness experienced by theists, as if the happenstance correspondence of one set of chemically-produced beliefs to physical reality would necessarily mean a concomitant better quality of happiness.  Seversky is apparently asserting that the quality of ones mental state of happiness is proportional to how closely ones beliefs happen to comport with physical reality.  Seversky is free to try and support this assertion, but we all know he cannot.  All this can possibly be is part of Seversky’s anti-theistic narrative; there’s no reason (that I know of) to believe that a theist’s happiness is somehow of less quality than an atheist’s.  Nor is there any reason to believe that theism confers any evolutionary disadvantage.

Under atheistic materialism, there are no bonus points after you die for  believing things that happen to be true, or that happen to correspond to factual reality.  Seversky’s only recourse then, in countering what he refers to as my “Pascal’s Wager” style argument, is that atheistic materialism somehow bestows a happiness quality advantage during life. Perhaps he might extend that argument to include some other ways that atheistic materialism produces some real-world experiential advantage. I’d like to see him or any other atheistic materialist try to make that argument either through logic or some kind of scientific evidence.  It is nothing more than a materialist myth.

The theme here is that for atheistic/materialists it appears to be important to their mythic narrative that atheistic/materialism conveys upon them some sort of meaningful experiential advantage over theists; that somehow, in some real sense, atheism is superior to theism and that it somehow demonstrates some sort of individual superiority (at least in the sense of setting aside “illusions” – which is a recurring theme.). The problem is that the nature of their worldview logically precludes that from even possibly being the case; they cannot deliberately understand and accept true things because their consciousness, sense of free will and responsibility are illusions generated by uncaring matter.

Note how the illusion of self, self-determination and free will that refers to itself as “Seversky” claims that illusions such as he can “set aside” false,  illusory beliefs and reap some kind of factual benefit.  This is an enormous metaphysical myth – that somehow something that is itself an illusion can set aside illusions and see and understand “the truth”, and that such a recognition will be somehow substantively rewarded in some way that escapes other illusions of self that refer to themselves as theists, as if some illusions of self are better than other illusions of self, and as if such a difference substantively matters.

If atheistic materialism is true, then we all have the beliefs we have and act the way we act because such things are caused by physico-chemical forces that have no regard for the truth-value of such thoughts and beliefs.  Additionally, there is no “I” that has supernatural power over what these materials and forces happen to generate.  It’s not like we would have the power to stop a physical process from producing a false belief because that belief is false; our idea that it is false would also be a sensation produced by the same blind physico-chemical forces that produced the false belief in the first place.  Those forces equally produce true and false beliefs and thoughts (wrt factual reality) and also generate our ideas that such thoughts are true and false.  If factually true beliefs happen to coexist with a higher-quality experience of happiness, how on Earth would one evidence such a claim, or be confident that the view of the evidence and logic wasn’t actually false?

It’s far more likely (under Seversky’s worldview) that false beliefs confer some sort of experiential advantage because, if atheistic materialism is true, that is what nature has actually selected for – the supposedly false belief that god and/or a supernatural world exists.  Also, Seversky seems to think that it is important to have true beliefs rather than false ones; but why? Surely he realizes there is no factual basis for the claim that holding a true beliefs confers a better quality of experiential happiness.  Why bother defending the idea that if a programmed biological automaton happens to think things in correspondence with reality that this also happens to correspond with a better quality of (ultimately) illusory happiness? So what if it does?  If Seversky’s worldview is true, our levels of happiness are entirely caused by forces beyond our illusory sense of control and self-determination. In fact, individual happiness itself is an illusory experience of an illusory self; yet Seversky claims the sense of happiness of one illusion of selfhood is less illusory than that experienced by another illusion of selfhood.

What the take-home point here is that Seversky and others, even though they assert themselves atheistic materialists, still argue and act as if they and others have some supernatural power to deliberately discern true beliefs from false and deliberately overpower the physico-chemical processes of the brain to force them to correspond to true beliefs; that true beliefs somehow magically confer a better quality of experiential happiness; that true beliefs are somehow magically necessary or important when it comes to life and the human species.  It is just as likely that false beliefs are necessary both to long-term survival and for higher quality experience of happiness, and that atheistic materialism is an evolutionary dead-end that cannot compete with religious faith when it comes to factually thriving in the real world because it corresponds to physical reality.

The idea that “truth” can be deliberately obtained, forced onto physico-chemical processes, and that it confers upon illusory “selves” a higher quality happiness or evolutionary advantage is an enormous materialist fantasy.  For them, truth is the equivalent of a magical commodity capable of overriding, transforming and guiding physico-chemical processes, and they have utter faith in its ability confer both immediate and long-term benefits to them and humanity.  One wonders if materialists ever thought that, in an actual materialist world, perhaps an illusion of self working under the illusion of self-will with chemically-caused thoughts might actually require false beliefs in order to function successfully and thrive in the factual world, and that is why such beliefs are so widespread and so pervasive historically?

Well, no.  Because whether they admit it or not, whether they realize it or not, they still think truth is in itself some sort of transcendental, supernatural commodity that fundamentally matters and necessarily affects our lives in a positive way if we can deliberately ascertain it and live by it.

 

 

 

 

Comments
Q: If adding future days to a past infinite - in the past actual infinite set of natural numbers in sequence does the number 23 appear? A: No. It cannot appear because in order for a sequence of natural numbers to contain 23, it has to begin at 0 and move 23 places to 23. But an actual past infinite cannot have a beginning at 0, thus it can never arrive at 23. If it contains 23 in a sequence, then it had a beginning at 0, and thus it is not an actual past infinite. Yet again, one of the many contradictory impossibilities in dealing with an past actual infinite.Silver Asiatic
October 17, 2016
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Silver Asiatic @ 379 & 380: Wow. Impressive work.Truth Will Set You Free
October 17, 2016
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gpuccio
I note that Querius, Origenes, Jerry and mike1962 understood exactly what was meant by an actual infinite. In fact, Origenes cited Kip Sewell’s paper which said exactly the same thing
I failed to mention, most importantly, that HeKS's model (note, philosophical) and his comments through out the thread (see #268) for example are all basically elaborations or parallel explanations of exactly what I was describing.Silver Asiatic
October 17, 2016
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gpuccio
I disagree with many of the things you say, but perhaps it’s not so important. I am not sure that I have expressed well my points, so I will make another attempt.
I think I understood your points, and I certainly disagree with you but I appreciate the clarifications.
Indeed, my statement: was simply a reductio ad absurdum. My point is simply that you cannot derive scientific concepts from philosophical reasonings about the poorly defined concept of “infinite”, least of all using a frequentist approach to derive laws of necessity.
First of all, if you're able to provide an analysis of what I meant as "infinite", and then draw conclusions, then the concept is not poorly defined. You state "even if .." and then make a proposition, which ends with an absurdity. But as I said elsewhere, the reason it is absurd is because the tools you are using to understand the infinite are incapable of handling the task. In any case, if you cannot derive scientific concepts from philosophical reasonings about the infinite, then you can't derive mathematical conclusions from it either.
Infinite is a rather ambiguous word.
I note that Querius, Origenes, Jerry and mike1962 understood exactly what was meant by an actual infinite. In fact, Origenes cited Kip Sewell's paper which said exactly the same thing (although I disagree with some of Sewell's conclusions, he provides philosophical defintions of infinity and argues, correctly as I see it, against the mathematical notions you are defending as being contradictory and absurd). So, that's a group of us that have no problem with what was meant by an absolute infinite. Your disagreement goes beyond just with me in this case.
If we stick to its mathematical meanings, which are in themselves not simple, the when you say:
I don't agree that we should stick with mathematical meanings since they are totally inadequate (as mentioned, Sewell's paper, and simple logic shows it).
You are simply wrong. In the mathematical sense, infinite sets are not equal, they have different cardinality, as shown by Cantor.
Yes, that's exactly what I said. In a mathematical sense they are not equal. But in a real sense they are exactly equal. Thus, the mathematics simply doesn't work. It provides a false and contradictory understanding of the infinite. First of all, numbers are symbols. They are not real in the sense of occupying some space or dimension in material reality (unless they are expressed on a medium). Numbers only have meaning assigned to them by humans -- as such, they are imaginary. An actually infinite set of symbols, is exactly the same size as any other infinite set of symbols. Call them real numbers, natural numbers, odd numbers, negative numbers. They are all exactly the same size. It's only in the imaginary world of mathematics that they can be different. That imaginary world does not represent reality, or real things. In fact, all of those symbols are dimensionless. You can "fit" an actually infinite number of symbols in no space at all since they do not exist. Thus, in reality, you cannot "have" an infinite set of symbols (and "set" is an incorrect term also since it indicates a finite boundary) unless they occupy some dimension in the real, material world. The mathematical approach to an actual infinity is imaginary in that sense. So again, an actual infinite of anything is exactly the same as any other.
This is not at all an “illusion”, but a very precise mathematical truth. I am really surprised of your statement that “logic proves otherwise”. What so you mean?
It's a precise truth within mathematics but completely false in terms of reality. An actual infinite cannot be circumscribed. It is unbounded. It cannot be measured. That's what it is by its nature - by definition. Again, as one example, in the disputed claim, "Infinite + 1 = Infinite". You cannot have a larger or smaller infinite. In fact, you cannot even measure or determine the size of an infinite. Logic shows this. Math does not. Thus, the math is incorrect.
Logic is a deductive science, strictly connected to mathematics. Why should it “prove otherwise”?
Logic is what is used to judge mathematics. Mathematics can produce numbers that cannot be represented by real things. Math does not tell us that, only logic does. Logic is superior to mathematics since math relies on logic but logic does not rely on math. Math can arrive at incoherent but mathematically correct conclusions. The simple example given, when you subtract the infinite set of odd numbers (again, impossible because a "set" is finite and all the odd numbers are therefore not a set) from the set of natural numbers, you remain with two infinites. That is illogical and contradictory. Even as math speaks of "infinite sets", that also is logically absurd. Or in the simple example given, the infinite set of symbols called "natural numbers" are seen mathematically as a smaller quantity than the symbols called "real numbers". Again, logic proves that to be false, because by definition, an actual infinite is limitless and cannot be measured, circumscribed or compared. Both actual infinite sets of symbols, logically are exactly the same. So, logic proves that the math is incoherent. But even logic, which is superior to mathematics, cannot represent an actual infinite. An infinite cannot be represented because it is limitless. The act of describing a thing requires knowing what it is. But the infinite is not an "it" in the sense that it does not have boundaries by which it can be defined. Any claims to reduce an infinite to a "set" or "a quantity" or any sort of "thing" that can be comprehended is reducing an infinite to a finite quantity - thus contradictory and false.
What do you mean? If mathematics and logic cannot “model” the reality, what on earth can do that?
By "model" I mean describe, explain, illustrate. Do you think Jesus Christ can explain what reality is better than Georg Cantor could? Do you think that Christ, who said "I am the Truth" knows what reality is? Do you think that Christ requires mathematics to communicate the nature of reality? Reality is that which exists. Existence is being, and its source is ultimate pure being. Again, without some context (external to math), mathematics has no way to distinguish between reality and imaginary concepts.
You seem to ignore that “models” of reality are simply maps created by human reason, and that they are created using the fundamental laws of logic and mathematics. That’s why they are called “models”.
There are many sorts of non-mathematical models that map reality. Again, spiritual revelations about the nature of reality are, in fact, maps that can be used for understanding. When one is trying to understand a concept that transcends human reason, one cannot expect the tools of human reason to give a complete or even accurate model of the concept. An actual infinite transcends the capability of human reason to understand. It cannot be circumscribed (comprehended) by finite methods (science, logic, mathematics). It can only be known in a spiritual sense, at best. Some pointers can go towards it from philosophy and math, but in the end there are many contradictions. Again, as said earlier - just because math and logic arrive at contradictions when analyzing an actual infinite, does not mean the entity is flawed. Instead, it means the methods or tools used in the analysis are flawed.
But, if you refute mathematics and logic as tool to design models and maps, what are you left with? Especially in science?
Again, you seem to think that mathematics should be able to accurately describe all of reality. Where did you arrive at that notion? Again, I think we have even mundane examples within human experience - poetic insight, prophetic intuition, conscious awareness ... to the more esoteric like the resurrection of Christ. These are all significant aspects of reality which are completely inaccessible to mathematics. Would you use mathematics to model the poetic beauty of Dante's Divina Commedia? Is that not obviously (almost literally!) a map of reality? Even if you disagree with his notions, are you going to describe the beauty of that work through mathematical understanding? The same is true of an actual infinite. It transcends human understanding.
So, again, my point is: empirical science is about models and best explanations, and it uses mathematical and logic models as tools to build those explanations.
And again, it's a false assumption to think that every aspect of reality must necessarily be accessible to mathematics, or even that mathematics is the best tool for understanding all of reality. Again, even simply, mathematics cannot be used to understand logic, which must be a priori accepted before mathematical work can be performed.
The concept of “infinite” is either a mathematical concept, rather well defined, and then your statements are false, or it is a philosophical concept, which has no specific and univocal meaning, and then your statements are undefined.
I disagree. The infinite has been discussed and understood philosophically since at least the time of Aristotle.
In all cases, a frequentist debate about probabilities in infinite sets of potential observations is not the best way to do empirical science.
A few mistakes here -- I wasn't talking about doing empirical science, which is simply impossible to do on an actual infinite. Secondly, the frequentist approach uses the same starting point as the philosophical which is whether an event is possible in some way. As stated, and you haven't refuted -- an event is possible if it will occur in an actual infinite number of trials. It is impossible if it does not occur after an infinite number of trials. As I asked you already when you claimed that after an infinite number of trials (a mistaken notion in itself since there never can be an "after an infinite") that some new data or new event could occur ... "how much more time than an actual infinite would you need for the new event"? Can you see the contradiction here? You cannot add time to an actual infinite. There can be no "future time after an infinite elapsed". That's why you cannot traverse an infinite. I give you an actual infinite amount of time. Your event doesn't happen. Now you want more time with the claim that maybe then it will happen? That is absurd, illogical and contradictory. You cannot have more time than an actual infinite amount. I already gave you the maximum possible amount.Silver Asiatic
October 17, 2016
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Silver Asiatic: I disagree with many of the things you say, but perhaps it's not so important. I am not sure that I have expressed well my points, so I will make another attempt. You say: "First of all, it is impossible to achieve an infinite number of observations." And I obviously agree. Indeed, my statement: "Even if infinite observations of some event, or non event, are done in some context, there could always exist a different context where such a regularity of observation is violated." was simply a reductio ad absurdum. My point is simply that you cannot derive scientific concepts from philosophical reasonings about the poorly defined concept of "infinite", least of all using a frequentist approach to derive laws of necessity. Our scientific laws are inferences, and inferences are more than simple probabilities. They are maps of reality. That was and is my point. Moreover, I think you are confused in some of your points about the "infinite" nature of sets. Infinite is a rather ambiguous word. If we stick to its mathematical meanings, which are in themselves not simple, the when you say: "Mathematically, one can show that an infinite set of real numbers is greater than a set of natural numbers. But this is evidence that mathematics cannot model the reality of the infinite. An infinite set of natural numbers is limitless. It is exactly the same size (unknowable) as any infinite set. Mathematics offers the illusion that this is not the case, but logic proves otherwise." You are simply wrong. In the mathematical sense, infinite sets are not equal, they have different cardinality, as shown by Cantor. This is not at all an "illusion", but a very precise mathematical truth. I am really surprised of your statement that "logic proves otherwise". What so you mean? Logic is a deductive science, strictly connected to mathematics. Why should it "prove otherwise"? Even stranger is your statement: "Mathematical approaches to the question are illusory. Mathematics cannot model the reality. Nor can science or logic or even human reason in itself. An absolute infinite cannot be bounded, and as such, cannot be measured. Calling an actual infinite a “set” is inaccurate, since it is not a fixed quantity. It is limitless. A set is something finite." What do you mean? If mathematics and logic cannot "model" the reality, what on earth can do that? You seem to ignore that "models" of reality are simply maps created by human reason, and that they are created using the fundamental laws of logic and mathematics. That's why they are called "models". IOWs, the map is not the territory. And models are maps. But, if you refute mathematics and logic as tool to design models and maps, what are you left with? Especially in science? So, again, my point is: empirical science is about models and best explanations, and it uses mathematical and logic models as tools to build those explanations. The concept of "infinite"is either a mathematical concept, rather well defined, and then your statements are false, or it is a philosophical concept, which has no specific and univocal meaning, and then your statements are undefined. In all cases, a frequentist debate about probabilities in infinite sets of potential observations is not the best way to do empirical science. Instead, realistic reasonings about empirically small probabilities in finite contexts are perfectly useful in empirical science, and that's exactly the kind of argument that ID theory uses.gpuccio
October 17, 2016
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gpuccio
IOWs, let’s say that I state that if I drop a stone in the gravitational field of our planet, it will never go upward. In a sense, that statement is motivated by the repeated observation (although certainly not in an infinite time) that such an event never takes place. But, in another sense, we have developed some wider map of reality (for example, newtonian theory of gravity) which does not include that kind of event as “possible”. With some confidence (but not certainty) we accept that map of reality as true. In that sense, we assign probability 0 to that event, even if we have not an infinite frequentist support for it.
I'm using the concept of "what is possible" alongside of probability. I think you're correct to point out that under some possible conditions (that could exist in some way), the stone could go upward. Measuring the probability under known forces and conditions, we say that probability is zero. However, knowing that there is some potential of another result, given other unknown forces that could exist, we can assert that another result is "possible". The event can be said to have 0 probability under known conditions. 0 probabiliy is equivalent to impossible, as I stated. But only under what is known. But that is different from a measure of the probability under currently unknown conditions. In that case, we decide something is "possible" because it has a probability of >0 under some (unknown, or perhaps never existing) conditions. If those conditions never arise, the event remains impossible. If the conditions do arise, the event falls under a different probability measure. What you seem to be saying (and I would argue incorrectly) is that we can say there is 0 probability that any, as yet unknown, conditions may exist which would cause different results. That would be saying that "it is impossible that any other forces or conditions could exist". So, it's not a measure of the probabiliy of the event, but rather of the possibility that there are unknown factors that may change things. In that case, since we (most of us) would conclude that other factors "are possible", then the probability that another result (rather than stone dropping) is not absolute zero. In that case, as you said, we do not have certainty. The probability is not zero for another result. It is not 100% that the expected result will occur. This is based on the finite number of experimental trials we've evaluated. The problem we're looking at, however, is when you already have had an absolute infinite number of opportunities. In that case, probability measures are either 1 or 0. If the event is possible, it necessarily must happen. Otherwise, we know it is impossible - by definition. If it did not happen in the maximum amount of time that is possible, then it is impossible, it cannot ever happen.Silver Asiatic
October 17, 2016
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But if it was possible for that context to arise, over an infinite time, it necessarily would have already arisen an infinite number of times.
Clarification. I'm mixing real events in time with randomized abstract symbols in a string. No, if an event is possible, then it will necessarily occur at least one time in an actual infinite number of opportunities. Otherwise, it is impossible. However, as explained before that if the event was possible to cease existing, then it would have already ceased to exist. If the argument is that yes, it would have ceased, but something then created it again - well, that is talking about multiple entities, and thus more unexplained, asserted, assumptions being added into the model.Silver Asiatic
October 17, 2016
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daveS
In the weasel experiment, I believe the strings all have length 28.
The word "the" has a length of 3 characters. So, there are better odds that it will appear. But it doesn't matter. Both are 100% certain to appear over an infinity of generations. Over an infinity, a one in 10^40 will necessarily appear -- and it will appear an infinite number of times. Every possible finite string of characters will necessarily appear. All have the probability of greater than zero. If it is possible ever to appear one time, then under infinite opportunities, it must necessarily appear. Otherwise, it fits the definition of "impossible". When we say something is impossible, it means that over an absolute infinity of time (limitless, uncountable, completeness of all potential of time), it never happened. You might object, that an infinite past is not "all time". But an infinite past is not "an infinite amount of time", but rather "infinite time". It's all possible time, unbounded. No greater amount of time can be realized since, by definition, you cannot have a greater quantity than an infinite (which is an unmeasurable quantity for that reason).Silver Asiatic
October 17, 2016
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mike1962
And there’s the crux. Nothing new can be “added to” an infinite set. Infinity + 1 = Infinity The “1” is “absorbed”, and made irrelevant, by the fact that infinity already contains all natural numbers prior to the add (otherwise it would not have been infinite.)
Exactly. If days were numbered, then no new numeric day could be added to an infinite set. All possible numerics are already included before today. That's what an actual infinite is.
This is why the idea of infinite time intervals in the past is nonsense IF we also say that intervals are “added to the set”, in the manner that we obviously experience.
You get this clearly and exactly. It's impossible to add new data to a set that already contains all of the possible data.
Nothing can be added to the infinite set of all times intervals. Therefore no new intervals can come to exist. Yet, we know they do by direct experience.
This remains irrefuted (I'd say irrefutable). I'm disappointed that daveS has claimed not to understand it.
But without that question, “is this in the infinite set?”, infinity means absolutely nothing, whether it be in Cantor’s original formulations, or ZF set theory, etc.
Mathematical approaches to the question are illusory. Mathematics cannot model the reality. Nor can science or logic or even human reason in itself. An absolute infinite cannot be bounded, and as such, cannot be measured. Calling an actual infinite a "set" is inaccurate, since it is not a fixed quantity. It is limitless. A set is something finite.Silver Asiatic
October 17, 2016
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gpuccio
Even if infinite observations of some event, or non event, are done in some context, there could always exist a different context where such a regularity of observation is violated.
First of all, it is impossible to achieve an infinite number of observations. So this proposal is false and contradictory from the start. An actual infinite cannot be circumscribed. It is limitless and boundary-less. It is impossible to finally arrive at "an infinite number of observations". Any set of observations is necessarily finite, since it is bounded as a set. An actual infinite extends without boundaries and cannot be counted. The idea that "there could exist" different (new, unrealized) contexts, within an actual infinite, means that over, infinite time, some new context could arise which has not arisen. But if it was possible for that context to arise, over an infinite time, it necessarily would have already arisen an infinite number of times. Whatever conditions caused it, if possible in any way, must be fulfilled. If the event never occurred under an infinity of time, it never could occur. How much time would it take for the new context you're referring to, to exist? You are given an absolute infinite amount of time. But how much more time than that is needed for a new context to exist? Clearly, that's incongruous. You can't have a greater amount of time than an actual infinite. If you have an infinite amount of time, every possible event necessarily would exist. Again, if it did not exist after an infinite number of opportunities, it is not possible. I did not see how your explanation refuted that. An absolute infinite of something that contains the maximum quantity of the thing. Nothing new can be added. As such, every possibility under every possible condition, must necessarily be realized in an actual infinite. As stated, you can't wait for "another infinite amount of time" for a thing to occur. If you have one actual infinite, then you have everything possible (within that set). Mathematically, one can show that an infinite set of real numbers is greater than a set of natural numbers. But this is evidence that mathematics cannot model the reality of the infinite. An infinite set of natural numbers is limitless. It is exactly the same size (unknowable) as any infinite set. Mathematics offers the illusion that this is not the case, but logic proves otherwise. An actual infinite cannot be circumscribed. As such, it cannot be measured. That's the nature of it. It it limitless and complete (see Sewell's explanation above).Silver Asiatic
October 17, 2016
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"a new day can be added to an actual infinite string" And there's the crux. Nothing new can be "added to" an infinite set. Infinity + 1 = Infinity The "1" is "absorbed", and made irrelevant, by the fact that infinity already contains all natural numbers prior to the add (otherwise it would not have been infinite.) This is why the idea of infinite time intervals in the past is nonsense IF we also say that intervals are "added to the set", in the manner that we obviously experience. Nothing can be added to the infinite set of all times intervals. Therefore no new intervals can come to exist. Yet, we know they do by direct experience. Contradiction by definition. No infinite set of past time intervals. The misunderstandings and absurdities arise because what infinite (alpha null) are simply matters of what finite values exist in the set. For example: is 23 included within the set? Answer: yes. And will always be yes for any natural number. By definition. But without that question, "is this in the infinite set?", infinity means absolutely nothing, whether it be in Cantor's original formulations, or ZF set theory, etc. All of the other metaphysical stuff is beyond the scope of the technical mathematical specifications about infinity's relation to finite values.mike1962
October 17, 2016
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Silver Asiatic,
We’re talking about an actual infinite string of randomly generated letters. It’s the same approach as used in the wiki article.
In the weasel experiment, I believe the strings all have length 28.daveS
October 17, 2016
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Silver Asiatic: "If an event does not occur within an actual infinite (boundless) set of opportunities, where every possible condition that could ever arise has already been met, then the event is ‘impossible’. That’s what the word ‘impossible’ means. It could never happen within an infinity of opportunities. You cannot wait “another infinite amount of time” for the event to occur. An actual-infinite number of anything is the maximum possible number. If an event did not occur, then there is zero possibility that it ever could occur." I have not followed the discussion, but I think this is an interesting point, and I would like to offer a couple of thoughts. Here you seem to interpret "impossibility" (probability 0) in purely frequentist terms. While I am a frequentist too, that seems probably too much. I would say that, when we speak of probability 1 or probability 0, we are usually speaking in terms of "necessity", not probability. IOWs, let's say that I state that if I drop a stone in the gravitational field of our planet, it will never go upward. In a sense, that statement is motivated by the repeated observation (although certainly not in an infinite time) that such an event never takes place. But, in another sense, we have developed some wider map of reality (for example, newtonian theory of gravity) which does not include that kind of event as "possible". With some confidence (but not certainty) we accept that map of reality as true. In that sense, we assign probability 0 to that event, even if we have not an infinite frequentist support for it. The concept of "law" and "necessity", IMO, go beyond a frequentist approach. Of course, we can never be "certain" of any empirical laws. But that is true for any inference, whatever the number of, even infinite, observations that support it. Even if infinite observations of some event, or non event, are done in some context, there could always exist a different context where such a regularity of observation is violated. However, such a lack of certainty has never stopped us from making science, and from having good results in that, both at a cognitive and at a practical level. So, I would say that if we accept a law as best explanation, and if that law implies some 0 probability, or 1 probability for some events, we can safely accept that kind of necessity as a consequence of our law, and we don't need an infinite frequentist confirmation. However, it remains true that any law can be falsified, at any moment, by new observations. Of course, if we go at quantum level, the discussion becomes more complex. But I would not go into that now. :) And I don't agree that: "An actual-infinite number of anything is the maximum possible number." As we know from mathematics, there are many infinites, and many kinds of infinites. It's rather trivial that something can be true for the (infinite) set of natural numbers, and not for the (infinite) set of real numbers. It is equally trivial that infinites can be compared, and that some infinites are bigger than others.gpuccio
October 17, 2016
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We're talking about an actual infinite string of randomly generated letters. It's the same approach as used in the wiki article.Silver Asiatic
October 17, 2016
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Silver Asiatic, Are we talking about the same experiment, where there are an infinite number letters in the sequence (one for each day in an infinite past, for example)?daveS
October 17, 2016
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For a string of 28 characters, with 27 possible characters (A-Z plus space), any randomly generated string has the probability one in 27^28 of being correct; that is approximately one in 10^40. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Weasel_program
One in 10^40, not zero. In an actual infinite, a one in 10^40 selection will appear with 100% certainty, and it will appear an infinite number of times. The probability of every possible sequence occurring is 100%. If it could not occur over an infinite amount of time, then it is not possible.Silver Asiatic
October 17, 2016
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Silver Asiatic, But they aren't contradictory. 1) The probability of the event of at least one "t" occurring in the sequence is 100%. 2) The probability of any specific outcome (sequence) occurring is 0. Do you agree with either of these?daveS
October 17, 2016
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daveS You said:
It is true that the probability of a “t” being assigned to at least one day is 100%.
Then you said:
Even those outcomes which do have “the” and “methinks it is like a weasel”, etc., all have probability zero.
So, I don't know which you would like me to acknowledge since you offered contradictory statements.Silver Asiatic
October 17, 2016
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Silver Asiatic,
I’m sorry dave, I may have to agree with your previous post. We are not able to understand each other. I cannot understand your question. You again, (as you started the conversation) use the word ‘possible’. You’re claiming also that something is “possible” that has zero probability of occurring under an infinite number of trials.
Yes, we may be at an impasse. But do you acknowledge that every single outcome of the experiment you describe, that is, every infinite sequence of letters assigned to days in the past, has probability zero? Even those outcomes which do have "the" and "methinks it is like a weasel", etc., all have probability zero.daveS
October 17, 2016
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In any case, could you describe a particular sequence that is possible in this experiment?
I'm sorry dave, I may have to agree with your previous post. We are not able to understand each other. I cannot understand your question. You again, (as you started the conversation) use the word 'possible'. You're claiming also that something is "possible" that has zero probability of occurring under an infinite number of trials. If an event does not occur within an actual infinite (boundless) set of opportunities, where every possible condition that could ever arise has already been met, then the event is 'impossible'. That's what the word 'impossible' means. It could never happen within an infinity of opportunities. You cannot wait "another infinite amount of time" for the event to occur. An actual-infinite number of anything is the maximum possible number. If an event did not occur, then there is zero possibility that it ever could occur. This is where you're contradicting yourself. You're claiming a possibility where there are zero chances in an infinite number. Where did this possibility or potential come from? If it was possible, it must necessarily occur. Otherwise we must conclude it is impossible. An actual infinite contains every possible result. If it was missing one result, for example (like the unique day 'today'), why is is missing? Why didn't it already occur? Could we wait for some new conditions to arise, after an infinite number of opportunities with every possible configuration of conditions already necessarily having occurred? If so, then we would have to wait (traverse) an actual infinite number to arrive at today. Again, illogical and contradictory -- and not possible. You can't wait an infinite amount of time for an event to occur because an actual infinity does not have bounded space which you can reach by waiting. If the conditions that produced today did not occur in an infinite amount of time, there is no possibility (zero chances in an infinite number) that it ever could occur. An infinite string of days already completed every possible day. If the day did not occur within an infinite string, then the day was never possible to occur. It could never occur in a "future of the infinite" since the actual infinite itself has the maximum possible opportunities. A "future of the infinite" cannot provide more. Again, an actual infinite is a complete set. You cannot add anything to it. It already, necessarily contains every potential event, every possibility must be realized -- why? Because an infinite number of opportunities to realize that event have already happened -- an infinite number of times.Silver Asiatic
October 17, 2016
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daveS
It is true that the probability of a “t” being assigned to at least one day is 100%. And similarly, the probability of no “t”s being assigned is 0.
That's the output of a random generator of some kind. The probability of a unique new random arrangement (all 'a's is not a random arrangement), never before having occurred is zero. It is therefore impossible. If it could have occurred (if it was possible) it necessarily would have occurred. If it could have occurred once, it necessarily would have to occur an infinite number of times. If it was possible under any circumstances, under an infinite number of opportunities, all of those circumstances must arise - thus it necessarily happened. Now, when applying to the addition of "new days" ... The probability of a unique new day occuring after an actual infinite number of days already occured is zero. There is no possibility for a new day, since everything that was possible already occurred.Silver Asiatic
October 17, 2016
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Silver Asiatic,
Here’s where your idea is contradictory. If the event is possible, then the probability of it occurring under an infinite number of trials is 100%.
Well, I don't recall seeing that formulation before. In any case, could you describe a particular sequence that is possible in this experiment?daveS
October 17, 2016
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daveS
The probability of every day being assigned the letter “a” is zero, but it is nevertheless possible for that to happen.
Here's where your idea is contradictory. If the event is possible, then the probability of it occurring under an infinite number of trials is 100%. The definition of "impossible" is that under an infinite number of opportunities, the event can never happen. If the event could happen, under an infinite number of chances - then the probability is not zero. So, as above, you're claiming something is 'possible' and at the same time stating there is zero chance in an infinite number of trials that it can occur. Of course, in the model I provided, it assumes a randomizer. This is an artificial construct. No, it is not possible for a alphabetic randomizer to produce an infinite number of 'a''s. If it did, it would not be a randomizer. It would be biased and false. A randomizer contains certain parameters that prevent various outcomes. But days following days require the support of non-deterministic forces, in order for them to exist (as I explained and you avoided already). If days followed necessary/deterministically, then you'd be assuming that days will always exist. That's a blind-faith assumption that you're adding to your first assumption (of an infinite past). It's clear to me that you understand fully what I said. I believe I made it crystal clear. Querius and Jerry had no problem understanding it. I would suspect that very few IDists on this blog would have any problem understanding the points I made.Silver Asiatic
October 17, 2016
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Silver Asiatic, Your example in #357 is a very interesting one, and illustrates a point I attempted to make above. It is true that the probability of a "t" being assigned to at least one day is 100%. And similarly, the probability of no "t"s being assigned is 0. However, that does not mean it is "impossible" for no "t"'s to be assigned. That outcome is entirely consistent with the rules of this experiment. The probability of every day being assigned the letter "a" is zero, but it is nevertheless possible for that to happen. In fact, every specific sequence of assignments of letters to the infinitely many past days has probability zero; (..., a, a, a) is just as likely as any other specific sequence of assignments.daveS
October 17, 2016
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jerry Just to highlight @339 - this is essentially what I said above, and yes - correct.
This means that all possible worlds have existed and not only have existed but have existed an infinite number of times. Including this discussion with the current cast of characters but also with an infinite number of other characters/creatures. If one says no, then justify your reasoning. If one wants to subscribe to such a possibility then there also an infinite number of worlds with intelligences so large that we could not tell the difference between any one of these numbers of beings and what we call the Judeo/Christian God. And an infinite subset of these intelligences will say “Let there be light” and a new universe will come into being. And to emphasize the absurdity an infinite subset of these declarations will take place in English. If one wants to entertain infinity of time or universes then this is what you are subscribing to.
Belief in an infinite past creates a kind of religious, mythological state where everything has been repeated infinite times and anything that was possible has already happened. As you point out, it requires the belief in the existence of gods, if not God Himself. Your challenge: Anyone who wants to sign-on to that belief system is really just stating their blind-faith belief in the mythological religion of scientism. I did offer even a refutation of that mythology at the same time @346.Silver Asiatic
October 17, 2016
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Another example might help. Assigning random letters from the 26 letter alphabet to the notion of infinite past. Each day is randomly assigned a letter. In the actual infinite: What is the probability of the letter 't' being randomly assigned? 100% Why? Because t is 'possible' under some condition. With an infinite selection, every possible condition will arise. Thus 't' is 100% certain to arise. What is the probability of the word "the" arising? As above, that pattern is possible. So, 100% certain in an infinite number of chances. How about "Methinks it is like a weasel"? Again, 100% certain to arise. Now, how often will the phrase "Methinks it is like a weasel" arise? Answer: An infinite, uncountable number of times. If it was possible one time, it was possible multiple times. If multiple times, under an infinite number of chances it will arise an infinite number of times. Now, what is claimed when it is said "a new day can be added to an actual infinite string" is that the phrase, for example, "Methinks it is like a weasel" never occurred in an infinite number of chances to occur. Perhaps last week we had "Methinks it is like a wease". But we wait an infinite amount of time for the unique phrase that includes the last "l". That's what it means to wait an infinite amount of time for today, a unique day, to arise. It's obviously false. We may say, "No, today is not unique. It's merely a repeat". In that case, as with any phrase - the entire collected works of Shakespeare, in fact, the entire literary output of the entire human race - all of that, in perfect sequence, will Necessarily appear in an infinite number of chances. Why? Because it is possible. You could calculate the odds somehow - no matter how astronomical, those odds necessarily will arrive in an infinite number of chances. But not only that! Every possible pattern will necessarily appear an infinite number of times. Thus, to say "today is a repeated pattern" is to claim that the exact configurations that make everything that is "today" necessarily already happened an infinite number of times already. So, your life, exactly as it is today, would be a reincarnation of an infinite number of identical lives you already lived. However, unlike random letters (or numbers) which have no real existence, your life could cease entirely and never be reincarnated. If so, as above, your life would cease and never exist again.Silver Asiatic
October 17, 2016
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daveS Well, thanks for reading my comments anyway. One key area you avoided was how you concluded that something was "possible" and at the same time claimed that there was no way to analyze its probability.Silver Asiatic
October 17, 2016
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Q Exactly. And in parallel, anything that exists can be fully and coherently explained by mathematics. But math is a limited tool and we end up with contradictory results when applied to an actual infinite. A thing that lacks boundaries cannot be circumscribed, cannot be compared with anything else, and cannot be fully explained.Silver Asiatic
October 17, 2016
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Silver Asiatic, I do appreciate your posts, but I think our views on this topic, including even the definition of "actual infinity" are too far apart to have much productive discussion.daveS
October 17, 2016
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Silver Asiatic, Good points. The fundamental flaw with all of these arguments is the assertion that if something exists in mathematics, it exists or is even possible in reality. -QQuerius
October 16, 2016
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