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Logic & First Principles, 17: Pondering the Hyperreals *R with Prof Carol Wood (including Infinitesimals)

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Dr Carol Wood of Wesleyan University (a student of Abraham Robinson who pioneered non-standard analysis 50+ years ago) has discussed the hyperreals in two Numberphile videos:

First:

Extended:

Wenmackers may also be helpful:

In effect, using Model Theory (thus a fair amount of protective hedging!) or other approaches, one may propose an “extension” of the Naturals and the Reals, often N* or R* — but we will use *N and *R as that is more conveniently “hyper-“.

Such a new logic model world — the hyperreals — gives us a way to handle transfinites in a way that is intimately connected to the Reals (with Naturals as regular “mileposts”). As one effect, we here circumvent the question, are there infinitely many naturals, all of which are finite by extending the zone. So now, which version of the counting numbers are we “really” speaking of, N or *N? In the latter, we may freely discuss a K that exceeds any particular k in N reached stepwise from 0. That is, some k = 1 + 1 + . . . 1, k times added and is followed by k+1 etc.

And BTW, the question of what a countable infinite means thus surfaces: beyond any finite bound. That is, for any finite k we represent in N, no matter how large, we may succeed it, k+1, k+2 etc, and in effect we may shift a tape starting 0,1,2 etc up to k, k+1, k+2 etc and see that the two “tapes” continue without end in 1:1 correspondence:

Extending, in a quasi-Peano universe, we can identify some K > any n in N approached by stepwise progression from 0. Where of course Q and R are interwoven with N, giving us the familiar reals as a continuum. What we will do is summarise how we may extend the idea of a continuum in interesting and useful ways — especially once we get to infinitesimals.

Clipping from the videos:

Pausing, let us refresh our memory on the structure and meaning of N considered as ordinals, courtesy the von Neumann construction:

  • {} –> 0
  • {0} –> 1
  • {0,1} –> 2
  • . . .
  • {0,1,2 . . . } –> w, omega the first transfinite ordinal

Popping over to the surreals for a moment, we may see how to build a whole interconnected world of numbers great and small (and yes the hyperreals fit in there . . . from Ehrlich, as Wiki summarises: “[i]t has also been shown (in Von Neumann–Bernays–Gödel set theory) that the maximal class hyperreal field is isomorphic to the maximal class surreal field”):

Now, we may also see in the extended R, *R, that 1/K = m, a newly minted number closer to zero than we can get by inverting any k in N or r in R, that is m is less than 1/k for any k in N and is less than 1/r for any r in R (as the reals are interwoven with the naturals):

and that as we have a range around K, K+1 etc and K-1 etc, even K/2 (an integer if K is even) m has company, forming an ultra-near cloud of similar infinitesimals in the extra-near neighbourhood of 0.

Of course, the reciprocal function is here serving as a catapult, capable of leaping over the bulk of the reals in *R, back and forth between transfinite hyperreals such as K and kin and infinitesimals such as m and kin, ultra-near to 0.

Using the additive inverse approach, this extends to the negative side also.

Further, by extending addition, 0 plus its cloud (often called a Monad — we can represent *0*) can be added to any r in R or indeed K in *R, i.e. we may vector-shift the cloud near 0 anywhere in *R. That is, every number on the extended line has its own ultra-near cloud. We note, reals are vectors with +/- directionality and a magnitude |r|.

Where does all of this lead? First, to Calculus foundations, then to implications of a transfinite zone with stepwise succession, among other things; besides, we need concept space to think and reason about matters of relevance to ID, however remotely (or not so remotely). So, let me now clip a comment I made in the ongoing calculus notation thread of discussion:

KF, 86: >>Money shot comment by JB:

JB, 74: we have Arbogast’s D() notation that we could use, but we don’t. Why not? Because we want people to look at this like a fraction. If we didn’t, there are a ton of other ways to write the derivative. That we do it as a fraction is hugely suggestive, especially, as I mentioned, there exists a correct way to write it as a fraction.

This is pivotal: WHY do we want that ratio, that fraction?
WHY do we think in terms of a function y = f(x), which is continuous and “smooth” in a relevant domain, then for some h that somehow trends to 0 but never quite gets there — we cannot divide by zero — then evaluate:

dy/dx is
lim h –> 0
of
[f(x + h) – f(x)]/[(x + h) – x]

. . . save that, we are looking at the tangent value for the angle the tangent-line of the f(x) curve makes with the horizontal, taken as itself a function of x, f'(x) in Newton’s fluxion notation.

We may then consider f-prime, f'(x) as itself a function and seek its tangent-angle behaviour, getting to f”(x), the second order flow function. Then onwards.

But in all of this, we are spewing forth a veritable spate of infinitesimals and higher order infinitesimals, thus we need something that allows us to responsibly and reliably conceive of and handle them.

I suspect, the epsilon delta limits concept is more of a kludge work-around than we like to admit, a scaffolding that keeps us on safe grounds among the reals. After all, isn’t there no one closest real to any given real, i.e. there is a continuum

But then, is that not in turn something that implies infinitesimal, all but zero differences? Thus, numbers that are all but zero different from zero itself considered as a real? Or, should we be going all vector and considering a ring of the close in C?

In that context, I can see that it makes sense to consider some K that somehow “continues on” from the finite specific reals we can represent, let’s use lower case k, and confine ourselves to the counting numbers as mileposts on the line:

0 – 1 – 2 . . . k – k+1 – k+2 – . . . . – K – K+1 – K+2 . . .
{I used the four dot ellipsis to indicate specifically transfinite span}

We may then postulate a catapult function so 1/K –> m, where m is closer to 0 than ANY finite real or natural we can represent by any k can give.
Notice, K is preceded by a dash, meaning there is a continuum back to say K/2 (–> considering K as even) and beyond, descending and passing mileposts as we go:

K-> K-1 –> K-2 . . . K/2 – [K/2 – 1] etc,

but we cannot in finite successive steps bridge down to k thence to 1 and 0.

Where, of course, we can reflect in the 0 point, through posing additive inverses and we may do the rotation i*[k] to get the complex span.

Of course, all of this is to be hedged about with the usual non standard restrictions, but here is a rough first pass look at the hyperreals, with catapult between the transfinite and the infinitesimals that are all but zero. Where the latter clearly have a hierarchy such that m^2 is far closer to 0 than m.

And, this is also very close to the surreals pincer game, where after w steps we can constrict a continuum through in effect implying that a real is a power series sum that converges to a particular value, pi or e etc. then, go beyond, we are already in the domain of supertasks so just continue the logic to the transfinitely large domain, ending up with that grand class.

Coming back, DS we are here revisiting issues of three years past was it: step along mile posts back to the singularity as the zeroth stage, then beyond as conceived as a quasi-physical temporal causal domain with prior stages giving rise to successors. We may succeed in finite steps from any finitely remote -k to -1 to 0 and to some now n, but we have no warrant for descent from some [transefinite] hyperreal remote past stage – K as the descent in finite steps, unit steps, from there will never span to -k. That is, there is no warrant for a proposed transfinite quasi-physical, causal-temporal successive past of our observed cosmos and its causal antecedents.

Going back to the focus, if 0 is surrounded by an infinitesimal cloud closer than any k in R can give by taking 1/k, but which we may attain to by taking 1/K in *R, the hyperreals, then by simple vector transfer along the line, any real, r, will be similarly surrounded by such a cloud. For, (r + m) is in the extended continuum, but is closer than any (r + 1/k) can give where k is in R.

The concept, continuum is strange indeed, stranger than we can conceive of.

So, now, we may come back up to ponder the derivative.

If a valid, all but zero number or quantity exists, then — I am here exploring the logic of structure and quantity, I am not decreeing some imagined absolute conclusion as though I were omniscient and free of possibility of error — we may conceive of taking a ratio of two such quantities, called dy and dx, where this further implies an operation of approach to zero increment. The ratio dy/dx then is much as conceived and h = [(x +h) – x] is numerically dx.

But dx is at the same time a matter of an operation of difference as difference trends to zero, so it is not conceptually identical

Going to the numerator, with f(x), the difference dy is again an operation but is constrained by being bound to x, we must take the increment h in x to identify the increment in f(x), i.e. the functional relationship is thus bound into the expression. This is not a free procedure.

Going to a yet higher operation, we have now identified that a flow-function f ‘(x) is bound to the function f(x) and to x, all playing continuum games as we move in and out by some infinitesimal order increment h as h trends to zero. Obviously, f ‘(x) and f ”(x) can and do take definite values as f(x) also does, when x varies. So, we see operations as one aspect and we see functions as another, all bound together.

And of course the D-notation as extended also allows us to remember that operations accept pre-image functions and yield image functions. Down that road lies a different perspective on arithmetical, algebraic, analytical and many other operations including of course the vector-differential operations and energy-potential operations [Hamiltonian] that are so powerful in electromagnetism, fluid dynamics, q-mech etc.

Coming back, JB seems to be suggesting, that under x, y and other quasi-spatial variables lies another, tied to the temporal-causal domain, time. Classically, viewed as flowing somehow uniformly at a steady rate accessible all at once everywhere. dt/dt = 1 by definition. From this, we may conceive of a state space trajectory for some entity of interest p, p(x,y,z . . . t). At any given locus in the domain, we have a state and as t varies there is a trajectory. x and y etc are now dependent.

This brings out the force of JB’s onward remark to H:

if x *is* the independent variable, and there is no possibility of x being dependent on something else, then d^2x (i.e., d(d(x))) IS zero

Our simple picture breaks if x is no longer lord of all it surveys.

Ooooopsie . . .

Trouble.

As, going further, we now must reckon with spacetime and with warped spacetime due to presence of massive objects, indeed up to outright tearing the fabric at the event horizon of a black hole. Spacetime is complicated.

A space variable is now locked into a cluster of very hairy issues, with a classical limiting case. >>

The world just got a lot more complicated than hitherto we may have thought. END

F/N: I add (Apr 15) a link (HT: Wiki) on Faa di Bruno’s formula for the nth order derivative of a function of a function, which extends the well-known chain rule:

HT: Wikipedia

Hat tip MathWorld, here are the first few results:

NB, this is referenced by JB in his discussion.

PS: As one implication, let us go to Davies and Walker:

In physics, particularly in statistical mechanics, we base many of our calculations on the assumption of metric transitivity, which asserts that a system’s trajectory will eventually [–> given “enough time and search resources”] explore the entirety of its state space – thus everything that is phys-ically possible will eventually happen. It should then be trivially true that one could choose an arbitrary “final state” (e.g., a living organism) and “explain” it by evolving the system backwards in time choosing an appropriate state at some ’start’ time t_0 (fine-tuning the initial state). In the case of a chaotic system the initial state must be specified to arbitrarily high precision. But this account amounts to no more than saying that the world is as it is because it was as it was, and our current narrative therefore scarcely constitutes an explanation in the true scientific sense. We are left in a bit of a conundrum with respect to the problem of specifying the initial conditions necessary to explain our world. A key point is that if we require specialness in our initial state (such that we observe the current state of the world and not any other state) metric transitivity cannot hold true, as it blurs any dependency on initial conditions – that is, it makes little sense for us to single out any particular state as special by calling it the ’initial’ state. If we instead relax the assumption of metric transitivity (which seems more realistic for many real world physical systems – including life), then our phase space will consist of isolated pocket regions and it is not necessarily possible to get to any other physically possible state (see e.g. Fig. 1 for a cellular automata example).

[–> or, there may not be “enough” time and/or resources for the relevant exploration, i.e. we see the 500 – 1,000 bit complexity threshold at work vs 10^57 – 10^80 atoms with fast rxn rates at about 10^-13 to 10^-15 s leading to inability to explore more than a vanishingly small fraction on the gamut of Sol system or observed cosmos . . . the only actually, credibly observed cosmos]

Thus the initial state must be tuned to be in the region of phase space in which we find ourselves [–> notice, fine tuning], and there are regions of the configuration space our physical universe would be excluded from accessing, even if those states may be equally consistent and permissible under the microscopic laws of physics (starting from a different initial state). Thus according to the standard picture, we require special initial conditions to explain the complexity of the world, but also have a sense that we should not be on a particularly special trajectory to get here (or anywhere else) as it would be a sign of fine–tuning of the initial conditions. [ –> notice, the “loading”] Stated most simply, a potential problem with the way we currently formulate physics is that you can’t necessarily get everywhere from anywhere (see Walker [31] for discussion).

[“The “Hard Problem” of Life,” June 23, 2016, a discussion by Sara Imari Walker and Paul C.W. Davies at Arxiv.]

Yes, cosmological fine-tuning lurks under these considerations, given where statistical mechanics points.

F/N: J P Moreland comments:

U/D April, 2022: As this topic was brought back up three years later, I add as follows:

KF, 221: >> . . .

I think some basics of structure and quantity need to be made explicitly clear. So, I note as below.

First, von Neumann’s construction:

{} –> 0
{0} –> 1
{0,1} –> 2

. . . [ellipsis]

{0,1,2 . . . } –> w

That is w [omega] is the order type of the naturals constructed as ordinals, and N has cardinality, aleph-null.

Now, let us do a comma separated value construction of a wx3 matrix, pardon limitations of Word Press:

{0: , 0 –>1 , 1 –> -1
1: , 2 –> 2 , 3 –> -2
2: , 4 –> 4, 5 –> -3
. . . , . . . , . . .
w: , w , w’}

Where clearly w + w’ = 0, as can be seen by decimation of the rows.

We here see next, that the naturals, the integers, the evens and the odds as well as the negatives all have order type w. Where, a basic definition of a transfinite set is that a proper subset can be placed in 1:1 correspondence with the whole. Thus, [by demonstration] the integers and particularly the negative integers can be seen to be transfinite, with the counting numbers as a metric. [Order type is w.]

Therefore, to claim that past finite stages of time that cumulate to now are without beginning, thus can be mapped to the set of the negative integers exhaustively, is to imply that the traverse from the remote pass to now is transfinite. Implicitly, transfinite.

That such a span cannot be traversed in cumulative, finite stage steps should be obvious and should be acknowledged. However, given the open or veiled acerbity that has generated a toxic climate surrounding origins in general and UD in particular, let us note for the simple case of counting onward from some k and its complement k’, again using a matrix:

0: , k+0 , k’-0
1: , k+1 , k’-1
2: , k+2 , k’-2
. . . , . . . , . . .
w: , k+w , k’ – w}

That is, counting on beyond any k we state or represent in N, with k’ in Z-, will continue transfinitely of order type w, just as for the col 1 case k = 0. This of course reflects the same transfiniteness. It also means that at any finite stage k, or k’ we may go on from there as though we had just begun.

A labour of Sisyphus.

This is how the futile supertask I have often spoken of arises.

And if counting in Z- L-ward, counting down is transfinite, the same members will be just as transfinite were we to start somehow from L-ward and try to proceed in R-ward steps to 0 and beyond. [Or even to some finite k’.]

We may therefore freely conclude that past time cannot have been transfinite, regardless of side debates as to how the difference between any two specific integers in Z we identify, state or represent, z1 and z2, will be finite as the two can be bounded by finite onward values. That is, the ellipsis is part of the structure of such sets and in part tells us that we can only execute stepwise a potential but not complete transfinite, and we use the ellipses to represent the actual main body of work, where the transfinite lives.

So, again, using hyperreals only emphasises and makes this plainer for someone first seeing such a strange domain.

We are only warranted to speak of a finitely remote past that has succeeded itself by finite stages to now. In principle, we may succeed onward in a potential infinity but at no particular stage will we exhaust such.>>

Comments
DS, the hyperreals were there all along (even way back), and are part of the wider focus of the OP, as tools for thinking. Notice, there is an appendix on nth order derivatives? KFkairosfocus
April 17, 2019
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It's not clear why the hyperreal numbers have to be in this conversation. As WLC says:
That’s why proponents of the infinite past always insist that the existence of an infinite past doesn’t entail an infinitely distant starting point. ... The only hope for proponents of the infinite past is to insist that the series of past events has the order type ω* so that every event lies at only a finite distance from the present.
daveS
April 17, 2019
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H, the hyperreals are part of the context relevant to Calculus and to the exchange on what it means to have a transfinite past. KFkairosfocus
April 17, 2019
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Fine. Then, as I said, I'll bow out if we aren't limiting this discussion about "the past" to the reals.hazel
April 17, 2019
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H, the specific context of discussion involves both reals and hyperreals, where Dr Wood used K to denote a typical transfinite hyperreal and I have followed that usage. I then used k to symbolise a typical finite natural of large size and r for a similar real, pegged to fit in with naturals. I note that the naturals then integers act as mileposts, and can be extended to hyperreals such as K. Infinitesimals such as m = 1/K, cannot be integers. If we loosen up k to the case k = 1, 1/k will be an integer, 1. Note, from OP:
In effect, using Model Theory (thus a fair amount of protective hedging!) or other approaches, one may propose an “extension” of the Naturals and the Reals, often N* or R* — but we will use *N and *R as that is more conveniently “hyper-“. Such a new logic model world — the hyperreals — gives us a way to handle transfinites in a way that is intimately connected to the Reals (with Naturals as regular “mileposts”). As one effect, we here circumvent the question, are there infinitely many naturals, all of which are finite by extending the zone. So now, which version of the counting numbers are we “really” speaking of, N or *N? In the latter, we may freely discuss a K that exceeds any particular k in N reached stepwise from 0. That is, some k = 1 + 1 + . . . 1, k times added and is followed by k+1 etc. And BTW, the question of what a countable infinite means thus surfaces: beyond any finite bound. That is, for any finite k we represent in N, no matter how large, we may succeed it, k+1, k+2 etc, and in effect we may shift a tape starting 0,1,2 etc up to k, k+1, k+2 etc and see that the two “tapes” continue without end in 1:1 correspondence
KF PS: I noted, that Dr Wood's mentor, Abraham Robinson, seems to have shown that in a maximal sense hyperreals and Surreals are isomorphic, opening up all sorts of interesting numbers great and small.kairosfocus
April 17, 2019
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H, observe the von Neumann construction I noted in the OP (and compare the diagram of the surreals constructuion process also in the OP). You will see that I identify the unlimited succession of naturals, and that the order type of the set as a whole is omega (for convenience w). Thus, the cardinality of the set is transfinite, specifically aleph-null. Likewise, I took time to include an old illustration, where pink and blue tapes effectively print the naturals on a given pitch. Slide pink to some arbitrarily large, finite k on the blue. A one to one correspondence continues onward without limit as may be seen from the subscripts for k on. This entails that the set is transfinite or infinite in the sense commonly used by Mathematicians. I note that this includes that for any particular natural we can state (in decimal form) or represent, k, the number will be finite and bounded by k+1 etc. Thus, part of the STRUCTURE of the set is that it continues indefinitely, is not finitely bound as a whole, there is no last finite natural we may identify or represent, f, that is such that f+1 = w. Instead, w is the order type of the structured set including that property of k+1 etc continuation. Thus, in the sense that N is transfinite being the primary sense, that it is infinite (meaning here, the same thing) is a synonym, though infinite may be used in other ways with other connotations that may colour our perceptions even in Mathematics. Notice, in the OP and comments, I have pointed out that the hyperreals may be a more relevant context for our pondering, effectively serving as extensions of N, Z, Q, R that allow us to freely range to transfinite values like K that exceed any particular finite natural k such that, catapulting m = 1/K is less -- is in a closer neighbourhood to 0 -- than any n = 1/k.In this sense, m and its cloud of kindred infinitesimals is infinitely small, but of course not quite zero. Catapult back out again to the transfinites through 1/m = K being larger than any 1/n = k, k a particular typical LARGE finite, natural number. I do think the relationships being explored by case study help to clarify the sense of key terms. But then, I am a Constructivist in education-linked thought on the nature of understanding, was one due to Skemp decades before I knew of such a named school of thought. KFkairosfocus
April 17, 2019
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kf, is K a hyperreal as per the video? If so, since I'm limiting my discussion to the reals, I'll quit trying to understand what you're saying.hazel
April 17, 2019
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KF,
I presume you mean, that no one accepts that there was an actual past stage that we can apply some duration metric to and conclude it was remote of order K such that the duration to K from n, now, is transfinite per a count metric or any other relevant metric.
I actually meant that no one here has inferred that the past is indeed infinite. I'm just commenting on proposed arguments purporting to show an infinite past is impossible. I'll remain neutral on the above statement, which WLC discusses above.
The next issue is then: does the claim that there was an infinite or transfinite past that actually occurred IMPLY that there was a past time remote of order K?
Not that I am aware of.daveS
April 17, 2019
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P = The set of natural numbers is infinite. Q = The set of natural numbers is transfinite. Do those two sentences mean exactly the same thing?hazel
April 17, 2019
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DS, 28:
No one is inferring an actual infinite past either
I presume you mean, that no one accepts that there was an actual past stage that we can apply some duration metric to and conclude it was remote of order K such that the duration to K from n, now, is transfinite per a count metric or any other relevant metric. That's an important agreement, if this is what you mean. The next issue is then: does the claim that there was an infinite or transfinite past that actually occurred IMPLY that there was a past time remote of order K? Applied to this, I note that duration between times or stages s1 and s2 is specific to the stages, it does not extend beyond the stages. So, arguably, if there is a past that is cumulatively transfinite in character, it then has in it time points s1 such that duration to now s2 = n, will be of order K on some relevant metric (one that uses finite stages or units). Notice, I have put forward that if we have warrant only to speak of finitely remote past stages then we have no warrant to speak of a past of transfinite duration to now. KFkairosfocus
April 17, 2019
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H, I stated the property I am speaking of, beyond any finite bound. I use "infinite" in the same sense as a general rule, but strongly prefer the more precise mathematically specific term, transfinite. Contrast, the Athanasian Creed, Latin form: immensus in the sense of beyond measure i.e. specific finite limit, often rendered infinite in English. Do you know of contexts where there is a relevant difference between the two terms in studying the logic of structure and quantity? KFkairosfocus
April 17, 2019
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I read Wikipedia also. My question is, given that I at least have restricted this discussion to the real numbers, are you using the words “transfinite” and “infinite” as synonyms?hazel
April 17, 2019
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H, transfinite is a description of a property, beyond any finite limit. KF PS: Wiki notes:
Transfinite numbers are numbers that are "infinite" in the sense that they are larger than all finite numbers, yet not necessarily absolutely infinite. The term transfinite was coined by Georg Cantor, who wished to avoid some of the implications of the word infinite in connection with these objects, which were, nevertheless, not finite. Few contemporary writers share these qualms; it is now accepted usage to refer to transfinite cardinals and ordinals as "infinite". However, the term "transfinite" also remains in use.
kairosfocus
April 17, 2019
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KF, No one is inferring an actual infinite past either. Several have claimed that an infinite past is impossible, however. That's how this whole thing got started. (see Laszlo Bencze).daveS
April 17, 2019
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DS, the claim infinite actual past pretty much entails a cumulatively transfinite succession of past stages to the present, which implies appropriate durations since past points and now. If the overall process is transfinite it implies transfinitely remote past stages with the transfinite durations since them to now. There is no duration of the whole above and beyond durations to actual specific, distinct, once present, now succeeded past stages. Where the structure of the temporal-causal order is such that there is a cumulative, causally successive process that yields the present out of what is now the past. I do not think that we can appeal to there being an indefinitely continued set such as the set of numbers provides so beyond any k there are k+1 etc, mirrored on the negative side.The span from ANY finitely remote actual past point to now is just that, finite. To have a transfinite span, it looks much like needing a specific past stage which is transfinitely remote or else we may be conflating abstract set properties to very concrete durations since very concrete causally successive past stages. KFkairosfocus
April 17, 2019
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kf, are you using the words "transfinite" and "infinite" as synonyms?hazel
April 17, 2019
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KF,
Also, if there is a metric that effectively counts causally successive steps, if every actually past event or stage Q is finitely remote, we have no warrant to infer transfinitely remote times, or a cumulatively transfinite duration descending to the present.
Whether this is true or not, no one here is inferring a cumulatively transfinite duration descending to the present. Various people have claimed that such is impossible, on the other hand. To which I say, let's see the argument.daveS
April 17, 2019
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H, 20:
“Infinity” is not a place where one could go in the future, nor one from where came from in the past. It is not a place at all. Every possible point Q in the past is a finite distance from 0, so no matter where you start, you only have to traverse a finite number of steps to get to the present.
See the problem? Also, if there is a metric that effectively counts causally successive steps, if every actually past event or stage Q is finitely remote, we have no warrant to infer transfinitely remote times, or a cumulatively transfinite duration descending to the present. The challenge of traversing the transfinite since any particular past event or stage poses a supertask. There is no actual past Q that does not involve durations to now that must causally, stepwise succeed to now. If one claims a transfinite past, it is very hard to avoid the comment that one implies actual past stages Q that are remote in the sense of -K as opposed to - k as was discussed above. (Which does use the hyperreals to provide a conceptual context.) KFkairosfocus
April 17, 2019
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F/N: For convenience, let me post the clip:
In physics, particularly in statistical mechanics, we base many of our calculations on the assumption of metric transitivity, which asserts that a system’s trajectory will eventually [--> given "enough time and search resources"] explore the entirety of its state space – thus everything that is phys-ically possible will eventually happen. It should then be trivially true that one could choose an arbitrary “final state” (e.g., a living organism) and “explain” it by evolving the system backwards in time choosing an appropriate state at some ’start’ time t_0 (fine-tuning the initial state). In the case of a chaotic system the initial state must be specified to arbitrarily high precision. But this account amounts to no more than saying that the world is as it is because it was as it was, and our current narrative therefore scarcely constitutes an explanation in the true scientific sense. We are left in a bit of a conundrum with respect to the problem of specifying the initial conditions necessary to explain our world. A key point is that if we require specialness in our initial state (such that we observe the current state of the world and not any other state) metric transitivity cannot hold true, as it blurs any dependency on initial conditions – that is, it makes little sense for us to single out any particular state as special by calling it the ’initial’ state. If we instead relax the assumption of metric transitivity (which seems more realistic for many real world physical systems – including life), then our phase space will consist of isolated pocket regions and it is not necessarily possible to get to any other physically possible state (see e.g. Fig. 1 for a cellular automata example).
[--> or, there may not be "enough" time and/or resources for the relevant exploration, i.e. we see the 500 - 1,000 bit complexity threshold at work vs 10^57 - 10^80 atoms with fast rxn rates at about 10^-13 to 10^-15 s leading to inability to explore more than a vanishingly small fraction on the gamut of Sol system or observed cosmos . . . the only actually, credibly observed cosmos]
Thus the initial state must be tuned to be in the region of phase space in which we find ourselves [--> notice, fine tuning], and there are regions of the configuration space our physical universe would be excluded from accessing, even if those states may be equally consistent and permissible under the microscopic laws of physics (starting from a different initial state). Thus according to the standard picture, we require special initial conditions to explain the complexity of the world, but also have a sense that we should not be on a particularly special trajectory to get here (or anywhere else) as it would be a sign of fine–tuning of the initial conditions. [ --> notice, the "loading"] Stated most simply, a potential problem with the way we currently formulate physics is that you can’t necessarily get everywhere from anywhere (see Walker [31] for discussion). ["The “Hard Problem” of Life," June 23, 2016, a discussion by Sara Imari Walker and Paul C.W. Davies at Arxiv.]
KFkairosfocus
April 17, 2019
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H, I am simply counting successive, causal-temporal eras or stages -- with big bang as zero point (with room for stages antecedent to it as in there's room for a super cosmos or multiverse here), not laying out a chronologically linear timeline, though that can be done (also see my discussion). Part of why I am counting stages, is that beyond the singularity -- as is commonly suggested -- there is not a simple basis of observations to calibrate in years by contrast with Hubble expansion and things like H-R diagrams for star clusters. See this discussion. That is strong enough to apply a numerical count as quantisation. The issues raised then apply. KF PS: Observe also the discussion appended to the OP, by Davies and Walker. Notice, how statistical mechanicsnaturally leads to a temporally-causally unfolding phase process in phase space as a very general result. Notice, the point on how fine tuning of original state comes out.kairosfocus
April 17, 2019
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Oh my. Yes if you start from an arbitrary 0 then you can feign an infinite past.ET
April 17, 2019
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I am going to jump into this “infinite past” discussion, with the following disclaimers: 1. I am discussing this as a purely mathematical issue. As I have explained in 6 and 16, this has ABSOLUTELY NOTHING TO DO WITH REALITY AS IT MIGHT EXTEND BEYOND OR BEFORE OUR UNIVERSE. Hope that’s clear. 2. I am going to use the real number line, and in fact the integers only, as my model. This has nothing to do with hyperreals. 3. Given a point P, I will call numbers to the right the “future” and numbers to the left the “past”, although, as explained in disclaimer 1, this is just a mathematical convenience and not meant to imply anything about reality. First, let’s talk about the natural numbers N. We say that the set of naturals is infinite because given any natural number k we can find a larger number k + 1. The set of naturals can be extended indefinitely, and thus we say the set of natural numbers is infinite. That is, given point P, we could say that the future is infinite because no matter how many steps into the future you go from P, you can always go farther. Now assume you are at point P = 1000, where P is the present. Person Q(1) starts at k = -1000 and walks to you: he started in the past and reached the Present in 2000 steps. Person Q(2) started at k = -1 billion, in your past, and walked to you in 1,000,001,000 steps. He started in the past and indeed reached the Present, eventually. Let’s be more abstract. Person Q(k) started at -k, and thus reaches the Present in k + 1000 steps. Is there any limit to k? No. No matter how far in the past person Q(k) might have started, person Q(k + 1) started father in the past. Therefore the points at which Q(k) might have started can be extended indefinitely into the past. Therefore, the past is infinite just as the future is infinite: There is no positive limit to how far in the future you might go, and there is no negative limit in the past from which you might have come. I think the confusion about all this involves the notion of "traversing" an infinite number of numbers. The future is infinite even though that is not a claim that anyone could completely visit all of them. ------- After seeing Dave’s post: I think the confusion about all this involves the notion of "traversing" an infinite number of numbers. The future (that is, the set of natural numbers starting at point P) is infinite even though that is not a claim that anyone could completely visit all of them. However, you can traverse as many as you need to get to any particular number in the future. Similarly, the past is infinite because there is no limit to how far back one might have started, but that is not a claim that for any starting place, one has traversed all the points to the left. It is just a claim that you could have started farther left, so there is no place so far in the past that you couldn’t have started there. “Infinity” is not a place where one could go in the future, nor one from where came from in the past. It is not a place at all. Every possible point Q in the past is a finite distance from 0, so no matter where you start, you only have to traverse a finite number of steps to get to the present.hazel
April 17, 2019
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A relevant passage by William Lane Craig, which lays out some technicalities that arise in this debate. (link):
The argument I gave takes P for granted—granted, that is, by the proponents of the infinitude of the past. They assume that if the past series of events is infinite, then the order type of that series is the order type of the negative numbers, or in the usual symbolism, ω*. Logically, that isn't necessary. The series of past events could have the order type ω* + ω*, the order type exemplified by . . . , −3, −2, −1, . . . , −3, −2, −1. But it's obvious why proponents of the infinite past don't adopt this view: for then there are past events which lie at an infinite distance from the present. But then one could never traverse the infinite distance from, say, the first −3 to the second −3. That's why proponents of the infinite past always insist that the existence of an infinite past doesn't entail an infinitely distant starting point. The Tristram Shandy paradox about a man writing his autobiography so slowly that it takes him a year to record the events of a single day challenges the assumption that an infinite past would have the order type ω*. The only hope for proponents of the infinite past is to insist that the series of past events has the order type ω* so that every event lies at only a finite distance from the present. In that way, forming an infinite past by successive addition doesn't involve, they claim, traversing an infinite distance.
daveS
April 17, 2019
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The little one has informed me that the "Magic Bus" is how you get from an infinite past to the present. But the little one was puzzled when I couldn't show where the infinite past was on any of our maps or globes. Now we are discussing the "we came from history?" part...ET
April 17, 2019
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Anyone who thinks there was an infinite past needs to show how we got to the present. Good luck with that...ET
April 17, 2019
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kf, you write, " I really have in mind phases of development of the cosmos and proto-cosmos whatever that is), as opposed to time as a continuum." And how do you know the real number line, in any sense, is an accurate model for that? We have absolutely no evidence for what is outside our universe, or what happened "before" the Big Bang. Your argument about the impossibility of an infinite past is based upon modeling it as "successive, cumulative, temporal-causal stages of finite character", but you then say "that is not exactly applicable." Yes, in fact, it might not be applicable at all.hazel
April 17, 2019
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LoL! @ daves- Then please shut up about mine being a faulty argument. Clearly you cannot make that case. You ran your mouth now it is up to you to support it or retract it.ET
April 17, 2019
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H, note, I speak of successive, cumulative, temporal-causal stages of finite character (think years as an example but as we go beyond the singularity, that is not exactly applicable -- I really have in mind phases of development of the cosmos and proto-cosmos whatever that is), as opposed to time as a continuum. KF PS: I have thermodynamics and grand cosmology in mind, such as is used to discuss the history of the cosmos.kairosfocus
April 17, 2019
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ET,
You don’t have to see my argument in order to make your own. But please do tell how we can reach the present from an infinite past.
I didn't claim to have such an argument. Let's have no burden-shifting in this thread, please. :PdaveS
April 17, 2019
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LoL! You don't have to see my argument in order to make your own. But please do tell how we can reach the present from an infinite past.ET
April 17, 2019
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