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Atheists Believe “Truth” Has Magical Properties

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At comment 60 in this thread about self-described atheistic materialists who want portray themselves as being moral yet having no basis by which to be moral in any objective sense, Seversky says in response:

“However, it is a choice between able to be good in a way that actually means something and actually matters,…” to whom? That’s always the unspoken part of such a claim. Meaning only exists in the mind of the beholder and something or some one only matters to some one. Believers fell better if they believe that their lives have meaning and matter, which means they need a Creator to whom they matter.

Notice that, according to Seversky, meaning is an entirely subective pheonomena. IOW, in Seversky’s worldview, being good an entirely subjective narrative.  It only exists in a person’s mind.  There is no means by which anyone can be “good” in a way that is objectively valid and objectively meaningful (meaning, it is good to the mind that is the ground of existence, or god).

In the very next paragraph of his response, Seversky attempts to portray an atheist’s happiness as somehow more real than a theist’s happiness, as if the quality or value of ones experience of happiness would be increased if it referred to something objectively real. He uses a quote from Karl Marx to attempt to get his point across:

The abolition of religion as the illusory happiness of the people is the demand for their real happiness. To call on them to give up their illusions about their condition is to call on them to give up a condition that requires illusions. The criticism of religion is, therefore, in embryo, the criticism of that vale of tears of which religion is the halo.

So, after I make the point that being good would have more validity and meaning if it referred to an objectively real commodity, Seversky shoots that down by insisting that being “good” can only be a subjective narrative. Yet, he seems to think that happiness – which which would obviously also be a subjective state of mind in his worldview – can be of a higher quality if it was generated by a correspondence to objective reality (giving up illusions, as Marx said).

In that thread’s OP I said:

This is the tragic nature of the good, moral atheist; they want their good acts to be somehow more real or better than an act a religious fanatic considers and feels is good, but alas, under the logical ramifications of atheistic materialism, their good acts would be the factual, physico-chemical equivalents of Jihadis who felt they were doing good by driving planes into buildings. There is no source distinction between any act anyone does.

Seversky seems to agree with this about morality, but is apparently holding on to the idea that happiness is somehow different; that the happiness generated by physico-chemical processes under an atheist/materialist narrative is somehow of better quality than the happiness experienced by theists, as if the happenstance correspondence of one set of chemically-produced beliefs to physical reality would necessarily mean a concomitant better quality of happiness.  Seversky is apparently asserting that the quality of ones mental state of happiness is proportional to how closely ones beliefs happen to comport with physical reality.  Seversky is free to try and support this assertion, but we all know he cannot.  All this can possibly be is part of Seversky’s anti-theistic narrative; there’s no reason (that I know of) to believe that a theist’s happiness is somehow of less quality than an atheist’s.  Nor is there any reason to believe that theism confers any evolutionary disadvantage.

Under atheistic materialism, there are no bonus points after you die for  believing things that happen to be true, or that happen to correspond to factual reality.  Seversky’s only recourse then, in countering what he refers to as my “Pascal’s Wager” style argument, is that atheistic materialism somehow bestows a happiness quality advantage during life. Perhaps he might extend that argument to include some other ways that atheistic materialism produces some real-world experiential advantage. I’d like to see him or any other atheistic materialist try to make that argument either through logic or some kind of scientific evidence.  It is nothing more than a materialist myth.

The theme here is that for atheistic/materialists it appears to be important to their mythic narrative that atheistic/materialism conveys upon them some sort of meaningful experiential advantage over theists; that somehow, in some real sense, atheism is superior to theism and that it somehow demonstrates some sort of individual superiority (at least in the sense of setting aside “illusions” – which is a recurring theme.). The problem is that the nature of their worldview logically precludes that from even possibly being the case; they cannot deliberately understand and accept true things because their consciousness, sense of free will and responsibility are illusions generated by uncaring matter.

Note how the illusion of self, self-determination and free will that refers to itself as “Seversky” claims that illusions such as he can “set aside” false,  illusory beliefs and reap some kind of factual benefit.  This is an enormous metaphysical myth – that somehow something that is itself an illusion can set aside illusions and see and understand “the truth”, and that such a recognition will be somehow substantively rewarded in some way that escapes other illusions of self that refer to themselves as theists, as if some illusions of self are better than other illusions of self, and as if such a difference substantively matters.

If atheistic materialism is true, then we all have the beliefs we have and act the way we act because such things are caused by physico-chemical forces that have no regard for the truth-value of such thoughts and beliefs.  Additionally, there is no “I” that has supernatural power over what these materials and forces happen to generate.  It’s not like we would have the power to stop a physical process from producing a false belief because that belief is false; our idea that it is false would also be a sensation produced by the same blind physico-chemical forces that produced the false belief in the first place.  Those forces equally produce true and false beliefs and thoughts (wrt factual reality) and also generate our ideas that such thoughts are true and false.  If factually true beliefs happen to coexist with a higher-quality experience of happiness, how on Earth would one evidence such a claim, or be confident that the view of the evidence and logic wasn’t actually false?

It’s far more likely (under Seversky’s worldview) that false beliefs confer some sort of experiential advantage because, if atheistic materialism is true, that is what nature has actually selected for – the supposedly false belief that god and/or a supernatural world exists.  Also, Seversky seems to think that it is important to have true beliefs rather than false ones; but why? Surely he realizes there is no factual basis for the claim that holding a true beliefs confers a better quality of experiential happiness.  Why bother defending the idea that if a programmed biological automaton happens to think things in correspondence with reality that this also happens to correspond with a better quality of (ultimately) illusory happiness? So what if it does?  If Seversky’s worldview is true, our levels of happiness are entirely caused by forces beyond our illusory sense of control and self-determination. In fact, individual happiness itself is an illusory experience of an illusory self; yet Seversky claims the sense of happiness of one illusion of selfhood is less illusory than that experienced by another illusion of selfhood.

What the take-home point here is that Seversky and others, even though they assert themselves atheistic materialists, still argue and act as if they and others have some supernatural power to deliberately discern true beliefs from false and deliberately overpower the physico-chemical processes of the brain to force them to correspond to true beliefs; that true beliefs somehow magically confer a better quality of experiential happiness; that true beliefs are somehow magically necessary or important when it comes to life and the human species.  It is just as likely that false beliefs are necessary both to long-term survival and for higher quality experience of happiness, and that atheistic materialism is an evolutionary dead-end that cannot compete with religious faith when it comes to factually thriving in the real world because it corresponds to physical reality.

The idea that “truth” can be deliberately obtained, forced onto physico-chemical processes, and that it confers upon illusory “selves” a higher quality happiness or evolutionary advantage is an enormous materialist fantasy.  For them, truth is the equivalent of a magical commodity capable of overriding, transforming and guiding physico-chemical processes, and they have utter faith in its ability confer both immediate and long-term benefits to them and humanity.  One wonders if materialists ever thought that, in an actual materialist world, perhaps an illusion of self working under the illusion of self-will with chemically-caused thoughts might actually require false beliefs in order to function successfully and thrive in the factual world, and that is why such beliefs are so widespread and so pervasive historically?

Well, no.  Because whether they admit it or not, whether they realize it or not, they still think truth is in itself some sort of transcendental, supernatural commodity that fundamentally matters and necessarily affects our lives in a positive way if we can deliberately ascertain it and live by it.

 

 

 

 

Comments
What happened to the edit function?mike1962
October 7, 2016
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Sorry, I find nothing here that registers meaning to my mind. Firstly, infinity is not applicable to real objects. (Do you disagree with this?) Well, I don’t know if it is applicable or not. I guess that’s the ultimate question here. An “infinite set” means that at no point, ever, is it actualized. If it’s ever actualized, it is by definition finite. Thus, infinity contradicts the Law of Identity, where A = A. It is a denial of identity. Infinity is a metaphysical concept, by design. That's what Cantor explicitly intended to convey. Something metaphysical cannot be physical, by definition. (Cantor claimed God gave him a revelation about all of this, that God was the "infinity of infinities" and somehow all of this infinity voodoo was suppose to have some enlightened meaning to it with regards to God. Maybe so, but it is not applicable to the real world, and therefore not applicable to time.) And yet here you are trying to apply infinity to the real world. The primary blunder in all of this is that there is no such thing as a "set of all integers" or a "set of all real numbers." These are mere words that never find an instantiation in this universe. And using ... ellipses is nothing more or less than waving a magic wand and invoking mysticism. Even in the world of quantum equations, the use of infinity in QED fields is a trick that referece to "potentialities" and nothing real, and the results have to be renormalized (another trick that even Feynman was dubious of) to have an sense. The way "infinity" is used in QED, it never refers to anything actual, and that's an important thing to remember. It is used similar to how "imaginary" numbers are utilized with respect to phase. There is no magic or mystery at all in the way these symbolic tricks are employed, and why digital computers can handle the equations just fine. I am open for correction.mike1962
October 7, 2016
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mike1962
Sorry, I find nothing here that registers meaning to my mind. Firstly, infinity is not applicable to real objects. (Do you disagree with this?)
Well, I don't know if it is applicable or not. I guess that's the ultimate question here.
Secondly, I (nor can anyone else) imagine a ladder with an infinite number of rungs.
Maybe not fully, but I don't think that means the concept is totally off-limits. Many philosophers etc. have spent a lot of time and ink reasoning about the infinite.
I think if you are going to assert that time has an infinite number of intervals in the past, the burden is on you to first demonstrate this is at least a bare logically possibly within the real universe.
I don't know if I can do that. I can propose a simple model, and if it interests anyone, we can discuss it. Some might claim to be able to prove my model is logically impossible, which is itself of interest (to me).
It seems to me that those who wish to believe that time has infinite intervals in the past think that infinity applies to real measurable things within our universe. This is puzzling to me.
I don't know about that. I'm not one who "wishes" for an infinite past, but I haven't ruled out the possibility that infinity does apply to real things in the universe.daveS
October 7, 2016
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HeKS, I have to admit I'm not at all clear on what this "infinite domain" is. Or what this has to do with actual vs. potential infinity. If we may continue to use the ladder illustration, my view is that the "neighborhoods" of each rung are (almost) identical. Consider any rung k in the ladder. It is "preceded" by an infinite number of rungs (those above it) and "succeeded" by a finite number (possibly 0) of rungs below it. There is really no essential difference between any rung near the bottom and rungs more distant. Furthermore, the infinite number of rungs (moments in time) before rung k always comprise an actual infinite set, because they have already occurred. They are not mere "potential" events that might occur.daveS
October 7, 2016
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daveS @225, Thanks, I'll check it out when I get a chance.HeKS
October 7, 2016
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daveS @221,
I guess it’s not really necessary to resolve this issue unless it really becomes relevant to our arguments. One question to consider is, in your ladder illustration, do you regard the ladder as infinite? I certainly do, despite the fact that every rung is a finite distance from the bottom rung.
Well, the ladder was used to illustrate an idea, but what you have to remember is that I don't consider the ladder of my illustration something that could possibly exist in the real world. Also, as I believe I said in the thread where I initially used the ladder illustration, I consider the infinite "end" of the ladder to be within the domain of infinity, which is entirely distinct and infinitely separated from any arbitrarily large finite domain. And that's kind of the whole point here. Infinity is not simply a really large and/or continuous extension of some finite domain. That would be a potential infinite. The actually infinite and the finite exist in entirely distinct domains that cannot possibly be bridged through any number of finite intervals. So for the ladder in my illustration, while it is true that any two specific rungs that we can number would exist a finite distance from each other, we also have to realize that the infinite "end" of the ladder is something very different from the end that is standing on the ground, and the rungs in the infinite domain are wholly unlike the ones near the ground, and there is an infinite distance between the two domains that cannot be traversed. Starting from the ground, we could climb forever, moving towards infinity as a limit, and still never enter the infinite domain of the ladder. From within the infinite domain, we could not make progress climbing at all or transition into the finite domain where there remains only a finite number rungs between ourselves and the ground.HeKS
October 7, 2016
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daves: If you imagine an infinite ladder (with one end planted on the ground), it has infinitely many rungs and is infinitely long, but every rung is a finite distance from the ground.*Well, no rungs infinitely distant from the ground need exist, anyway. Sorry, I find nothing here that registers meaning to my mind. Firstly, infinity is not applicable to real objects. (Do you disagree with this?) Secondly, I (nor can anyone else) imagine a ladder with an infinite number of rungs. I think if you are going to assert that time has an infinite number of intervals in the past, the burden is on you to first demonstrate this is at least a bare logically possibly within the real universe. It seems to me that those who wish to believe that time has infinite intervals in the past think that infinity applies to real measurable things within our universe. This is puzzling to me.mike1962
October 7, 2016
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HeKS, KF, anyone interested, I found a philosophical dialog about the general issue of the infinite past, including more details on premise 1 that mike1962 referred to:
1. If the past is infinite, there exists a point in time w in our past such that the time interval from w to the present is infinite.
Here's the section on google books. I can read all of the dialog there (pages 14--28), but I don't know how google books works; hopefully all the pages will be visible to others here.daveS
October 7, 2016
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DS (and all): The first issue is,
1: time is not just a set of successive unrelated values, 2: it is a process, a flow, a causally connected successive cumulative process, 3: one that is ever leading from the past to the present, 4: which per our experience and observation is ever in transition to be the future, while 5: the present of a moment ago adds to the ever-growing pile of the past. 6: Whee also, there is time's arrow to be addressed, ever-growing entropy leading towards evening out energy distributions thus degrading energy concentrations. So, 7: The natural outcome of this across time is heat death, the utter degradation of energy concentrations (which starting with stars like the sun [notice, chlorophyll and the importance of the Hadley circulation systems for planetary life supporting processes], are the engines of biological life) ___________________________________________ C8: Were there an infinite past, energy would be wholly dissipated and the cosmos would be in heat death; Where, too C9: There is no empirically observed evidence of ongoing spontaneous injections of fresh concentrations of energy in the world, only of conservation, disorganisation and dissipation. Where also, C10: The relatively small number of white dwarfs and their consistently hot state is indicative that the only actually observed cosmos is of finite duration. A point, backed up by C11: the evidence of globular clusters i/l/o the Hertzprung-Russell charts that show branching points from teh main sequence to the giants bands, indicative of lapsed times on order 6 - 10 BY or thereabouts per the dynamics of hot hydrogen rich plasma balls. Where of course, C12: The observed cosmological expansion has for decades indicated a cosmos of 10 - 20 BY, clustered at c 14 BY, now estimated at 13.85 BY.
In short, the empirical evidence in hand on the only actually observed cosmos points to a beginning at a singularity, c 14 BYA. Any proposed infinite extension in the past therefore has a huge challenge of empirical justification; never mind the popularity of talk on multiverse models and the like. Going beyond, the nature of time as duration based on causally connected stepwise succession is also suggestive. For, were there an infinite past, that means not only that there is some hypothetical pile of a completed infinity of past stages that cumulatively have led to our present era (for which there is precisely zero observational evidence), but that we have to address the core meaning of infinity in the context of such duration. That is, that the infinite is by general understanding that which endlessly exceeds any identifiable finite value, no matter how large. Typically, we use the interwoven nature of numbers based on counting numbers, and we talk of being endlessly beyond any finite counting number [one arrived at in succession from 0 by something like the von Neumannn construction or the like successive and cumulative process or extensions thereof such as the place value notation system and/or scientific notation, exponsntials, or log compression etc], no matter how large. It is easy to see that any such large finite, k, will be exceeded by k+1, k+2 etc without onward bound. This is the basis for the conclusion that no finite stage, successive process or scheme built on such can successively span an endless succession comparable to the counting numbers from zero up. Now, the significance of time as duration enters. For, time is unidirectional, with a definite flow vector, and a cumulative causal succession from past to present and onwards as time flows on, turning the present of a few moments ago into more past. And so forth, as far as we can see potentially endlessly. What does this mean for a hypothetical infinite past? Plainly, that if the past was infinite, its duration must be infinite, such that there must be moments (say, w) in the stepwise cumulative, finite stage succession of stages building up to the present, that are remote in the past beyond any finite bound (say k), however large. That is, with sn --> now, and s0 --> the big bang and with k beyond that and w yet beyond, with the three dot and four dot ellipses denoting finite and transfinite spans respectively, we are back to the sequence I laid out in 65 above. Thence, the challenges it poses:
we see (with ellipses of endlessness indicated by FOUR dots): . . . . w+2, w+1, w, w-1, w-2 . . . . k, k-1, . . . s0, s1, s2 . . . sn + –> There is a finite, causally successive stepwise span from s0 to now, no problem. But to get to s0 from w we have to count down across a span that is endlessly extensive. We might as well say: w –> 0, w+1 –>1, etc, . . . . | s0 –> OMEGA, i.e. the order type of the natural numbers as spanned from w. Mathematically, i.e. logically on structure and quantity, we may say that the endlessness of succession can be assigned an order type omega, but that is utterly different from being able to actually stepwise span it and traverse it. No, we see where it would go, and say, okay that endless span has a quantity, omega. We have delivered a logical result on the set as a whole per its logical structure, we have not actually spanned it in causally connected finite stage successive steps . . . . The challenge of endless traverse can be seen by postulating two tapes punched at an even finite interval, say 0.1 inch, starting left and endlessly going right. One pink, P and the other blue B. Advance P by some arbitrarily large but finite k steps, such that k+1, k+2, . . . . are now in 1:1 match with B at 0, 1, 2 . . . . where both are still endless to the right. The import is, endlessness is definable on terms of such a k, k+1 etc having no effect on the continuation to the right and continued 1:1 match of P and B. As a direct implication, at any finite stage k, there is still an endless succession k+1, k+2 etc still to go, proposed finite stage stepwise spanning of endlessness is futile.
In short, if the duration of the past is infinite, then it requires that there be moments w (note, not beginning moments or stages) that are ENDLESSLY remote in the past beyond any finite past bound k. Where w was once the present that then has to build up stepwise in finite successive stages to arrive at k then s0 then sn. Going from k to sn is no problem that is finite. But the spanning of w to k by stepwise succession runs into the challenge of endlessness, Endlessness required for w to be infinitely remote in the past. Which is patently impossible to span, as the down count from w, w-1, w-2 etc . . . . k --> can be put in 1:1 correspondence with the set of counting numbers from 0: 0,1,2 . . . . That is, it must flow in that way and it would have to stepwise span endlessness, which is not possible. Only finite values of duration from w on could ever be spanned and it would never get to k. So, something is deeply wrong. Spanning endlessness in finite stage steps is impossible. The definition of infinity I used accords with general usage and with what is generally meant and understood by speaking of an infinite past that has been completed, never mind assertions and constructions to the contrary. The hypothesised onward allegedly completed endlessness from w further back is irrelevant. Spanning from k to s0 and to sn is very possible. The conclusion is there is no warrant to go beyond k and hypothesise some onward allegedly completed infinite duration up to and beyond w. We see that we are fully warranted to conclude there was a finitely remote beginning to temporal order, and this traces back to some k, a terminus at a beginning. Which calls for a begin-ner. Which seems to be the real problem, determined refusal to acknowledge that the factual, empirical and logic of quantity and structure evidence alike point to a beginning of the temporal order we inhabit. Where as nothing or non-being can have no causal powers, it cannot give rise to the sequence of cumulative, contingent stages that are stepwise causally connected to yield the present. if there was a beginning, there had to hav ebeen a begin-ner sufficiently powerful to cause the sort of world we observe and experience, including our existence as responsibly and rationally free beings capable of genuine, reasoned discussion. Which points strongly to something very much like the God of ethical theism. But if one is committed to there not being such a God, then one can always determine to accept the difficulties or even patent absurdities of alternative schemes. However, such comes at a stiff cost, as pointed out by a certain peasant teacher in C1 palestine in his home province, Galilee, in his most famous sermon:
Matt 6:22 “The eye is the lamp of the body. So, if your eye is healthy, your whole body will be full of light, 23 but if your eye is bad, your whole body will be full of darkness. If then the light in you is darkness, how great is the darkness!
It is time for us to ponder the worldview level alternatives and what happens if ever we make crooked falsity our yardstick for judging truth; as, then the real truth that accurately corresponds to reality cannot ever correspond with such falsity, and is liable to be rejected while one professes to be enlightened even though one is only in fact endarkened. Woe to those who put darkness for light and light for darkness, falsity for truth and truth for falsity, good for evil and evil for good. March of folly, are we as a civilisation, folly patently headed to ruin. Even as so many proclaim themselves ever so wise and brilliant. Only, such "wisdom" is only what we perceive through our own endarkened and confused eyes. Woe to those who live in Plato's cave and imagine themselves free and enlightened. Deeper woe tot hose who willfully spin out shadow shows they know or should know are deceitful and foolish, leading to ruin. Woe to those who willfully cause even just one of these little ones to stumble from the truth and the right tot he harm of his or her soul. Woe to us, foolish and willful civilisation on a determined manipulated march of folly to ruin. Let us have the common sense to stop, realise where we are headed and turn back. Just perhaps, it is not already too late. Maybe, we can avoid falling over a crumbling cliff. And yes, this brings us full circle to the focus of the OP, truth and its special significance. KFkairosfocus
October 6, 2016
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mike1962, I don't think I understand your questions. I can explain why I don't accept premise 1 with HeKS's ladder illustration, though. If you imagine an infinite ladder (with one end planted on the ground), it has infinitely many rungs and is infinitely long, but every rung is a finite distance from the ground.* *Well, no rungs infinitely distant from the ground need exist, anyway.daveS
October 6, 2016
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1. If the past is infinite, there exists a point in time w in our past such that the time interval from w to the present is infinite.
daves: I don’t believe premise 1) is true Then if each time interval in the infinity is not an infinite differential from t[now] then what does it mean to say there is an infinite number of them relative to now? w[now] - w[arbitrary-past-interval] = finite value is not in the same domain as w[now] - w[infinitely-past-interval] = infinite value You cannot ever incrementally count up to the infinite-past-interval index. You have to take the "whole infinity" (whatever that means in the first place) else some finite value. And if you can't count up to it, then how did the universe itself "count up to it?" I think the whole "infinite time" thing suffers some the same defect that infinity does in the first place: it doesn't represent anything real.mike1962
October 6, 2016
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HeKS,
I’m somewhat torn on this issue. I agree with KF’s point to the extent that I understand it, which is that it seems meaningless to refer to the past as actually infinite while denying that any point in the past is infinitely far from the present. If all points in the past are only finitely removed from the present then it seems to be a contradiction in terms to refer to the past as infinite.
I guess it's not really necessary to resolve this issue unless it really becomes relevant to our arguments. One question to consider is, in your ladder illustration, do you regard the ladder as infinite? I certainly do, despite the fact that every rung is a finite distance from the bottom rung. A couple of points on your response to hgp:
As I’ve been saying across multiple threads, calling the past infinite and then starting at the present, counting backwards and saying, “just keep counting forever, it works, no problem” completely avoids all the logical problems with an actually infinite past because it conceptually converts what is claimed to be an actually infinite past into an only potentially infinite past for the purposes of discussion and argument. It creates the illusion that an infinite past can be forever traversed without having to arrive at the other “end” when the actual claim is that infinity was traversed one step at a time from the infinite “end” (for lack of a better term, obviously) in order to finally arrive at this end, the present.
I think there are no mathematical problems, but certainly there could be other types of issues. My "mathematical model" is simply an ordered set which is easily defined, all in one fell swoop, and I don't believe there is any "counting (backward) forever" involved. If I want to say something about the various moments in time, in an "orderly" fashion, it's sometimes convenient to work with the moments in reverse order, but obviously that is not meant to have any implications about the actual traversal in the forward direction. People can (and have) been confused by the lack of symmetry (traversing the points in time order is totally different from traversing them backwards), but I don't find it overwhelmingly difficult to keep things straight.daveS
October 6, 2016
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hgp and daveS, Hey hgp. Nice to see you here (I'm assuming you're the hgp I know from TT). Regarding your comment about ICS vs. AIS, I can't say that I'm any kind of expert in the finer points of this distinction, but it seems to me that an Infinite Countable Set in which all members are only finitely removed from zero and where the ICS is not an AIS but where the members could be counted forever without coming to an end is simply a potential infinite. For example, let's say I decided at 10am this morning that I wanted to sequentially count all the seconds that had passed since midnight last night (i.e. 10 hours earlier) up to whatever present moment I finished counting. In other words, I don't just want to count the seconds from 12am to 10am, but from 12am to whatever time I finish counting by catching up to the present second. If I were able to count at an average rate of 5 prior seconds per present second it would take me a couple hours to catch up to the present. However, if I were only able to count at a rate of 1 prior second per present second then it wouldn't matter that the number of seconds between midnight last night and the present moment was and always would be finite. I could count forever at that constant pace and never reach the end, because I would always be 36,000 seconds (i.e. 10 hours of seconds) behind the outer limit of the set of seconds that had passed since the midnight I was counting from. This set would then serve as a potential infinite, but this obviously only works because the set is continuously being added to and I don't have the capacity to catch up with its ever-increasing but always finite limit. It seems pretty clear to me that daveS is not envisioning this kind of past, where past moments are constantly being added, with the number of those moments approaching infinity as a limit without ever forming an actual infinite set. He has always been talking about the past as an actually completed infinite set. And, indeed, he has since confirmed that this is what he means. So I think daveS is correct in saying that we are essentially on the same page with regards to what he is talking about. Oh, and as a kind of side point, I also want to point out that I think the only way that an infinite past (whether actual or potential) can be viewed as an ICS, being placed in one-to-one correspondence with the negative integers, is by starting at the present and working backwards, which is precisely what I've been saying has been causing a problem all along. Events and causal chains in the universe did not unfold in reverse. As I've been saying across multiple threads, calling the past infinite and then starting at the present, counting backwards and saying, "just keep counting forever, it works, no problem" completely avoids all the logical problems with an actually infinite past because it conceptually converts what is claimed to be an actually infinite past into an only potentially infinite past for the purposes of discussion and argument. It creates the illusion that an infinite past can be forever traversed without having to arrive at the other "end" when the actual claim is that infinity was traversed one step at a time from the infinite "end" (for lack of a better term, obviously) in order to finally arrive at this end, the present. The problem is that there is no correspondence at all between these two scenarios. Though infinite can never be reached, one can make progress towards approaching infinity as a limit when one begins at a finite starting point and counts towards infinity. It is utterly impossible, however, to make any progress at all when trying to count from infinity down towards a finite limit. daveS,
I think that HeKS and I are actually on the same page on this matter, based on HeKS’s comments above—he and I agree that no moments in the past in the model I’m using are infinitely far from the present. None of the arguments he’s making depend on the existence of such a moment, certainly.
I think that the bolded statement is the one I'd be more comfortable affirming. My argument against an infinite past and the model you seem to be advocating does not rely on any moment being identified as infinitely far from zero or any other moment. That said, I'm not at all convinced that your model does not necessarily entail such a moment. I'm somewhat torn on this issue. I agree with KF's point to the extent that I understand it, which is that it seems meaningless to refer to the past as actually infinite while denying that any point in the past is infinitely far from the present. If all points in the past are only finitely removed from the present then it seems to be a contradiction in terms to refer to the past as infinite. At the same time, I also understand that it seems rather nonsensical to say that any two specific points in time in a sequence placed in one-to-one correspondence with, I guess, the negative integers, are infinitely far apart. Of course, to me, there's a very simple way to explain why both of these contradictory views seem like they would have to be true in an infinite past while both also seeming absurd for their own reasons, and that is because actually infinite sets are merely abstract mathematical concepts that cannot exist in the real world.HeKS
October 6, 2016
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KF, Yes, I understood. But so far HeKS hasn't objected to that particular feature of my model, so perhaps he agrees with me on this point? He can clarify, if he chooses so.daveS
October 6, 2016
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DS, notice what you just wrote: "no moments in the past in the model I’m using are infinitely far from the present." That is why I responded: if there are no infinitely remote past moments or stages that were once the actual present of the world, then past time has been finite. KFkairosfocus
October 6, 2016
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KF, Right, well, I'll let you harass HeKS about that one. :PdaveS
October 6, 2016
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DS, if there are no infinitely remote past moments or stages that were once the actual present of the world, then past time has been finite. KFkairosfocus
October 6, 2016
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hgp,
DaveS’s bag labelled “infinite past” contains an ICS of past moments but not infinity. HeKS’s bag labelled “infinite past” contains infinity in addition to what DaveS has in his bag, so he sees an AIS.
I think that HeKS and I are actually on the same page on this matter, based on HeKS's comments above---he and I agree that no moments in the past in the model I'm using are infinitely far from the present. None of the arguments he's making depend on the existence of such a moment, certainly. And just to be clear, I consider the past to comprise an AIS as well.daveS
October 6, 2016
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Origines, yup, where's de beef? Somebody got to start the beef for it to be passed on! A contingent chain is not self explanatory, per root of existence. Nor is the never never world of a rock's dreams -- a genuine non-being, a true nothing -- enough to get the chain started. And, resemblance to printing money and where it can lead if money is created out of thin air without credible labour, goods and services to back it up, is not accidental. Thence, many a financial crisis and chaos. KFkairosfocus
October 6, 2016
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BTW, going back to a connexion to the OP's focus, unless there are moral and logical truths that we may freely reason about and come to so warrant that we credibly know, all discussion is futile. This leads to needing a root cause adequate to account for a world with morally governed beings in it such as we must be just to discuss. This then makes nonsense of schemes of thought that reduce moral thought to illusion or social or personal conditioning or whatnot. Which then points onward to the issue of a world-root adequate to issue and pass on the beef, the $100 bill, of moral government. That is what puts ethical theism and comparative difficulties analysis firmly on the table. So, it all connects. KFkairosfocus
October 6, 2016
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OOPS: Denominators falling or rising. (I decided to go back and fill in thoughts then paragraphed.)kairosfocus
October 6, 2016
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HGP, the problem is, that is what I put on the table from the beginning, way back [this actually follows from several discussions across the course of this year], but this is being side-lined consistently. What does it mean to have an infinite actual past given the characteristics of the world we live in, of causal step by step succession of finite stages? Unless it is meaningless, a claimed infinite past must include stages like w in the above. Which then INHERENTLY poses the issue of stepwise spanning of an endless succession from w to k. Where k beyond s0 the big bang is there to account for multiverse hypotheses, oscillatory universes and the like. DS is using claims that all counting numbers are finite and the set infinite in cardinality, to imply that it is enough to point to there being finite predecessors to any particular time. (This led to considerable discussions earlier, including ordinary vs transfinite induction, the nature of sets and the structure of quantities, ending up with his suggesting the surreals, which seem to be the best framework for discussion, the transfinite hyper reals on my view are one of the branches of the surreals locked away within ellipses of endlessness; I suggested that we catapult back and forth to the infinitesimals near zero and up to the transfinite hyper reals by the trick of numerators falling towards 0 or increasing without limit. My conclusion -- and I accept this is "heretical" -- is that endlessness is a key characteristic of the counting numbers and is where the infinite cardinality comes from. So, ordinary induction is that any successor we can reach will have the chaining property once we have an initial established case. I find it an absurdity to claim that one has used induction or the like to show that there are infinitely many distinct, +1 step removed successive counting numbers from 0 where all are finite in value. By definition, the finite is bounded by a succession of steps from 0 that will terminate at a definite, non endless, stage. So the property of succession is not compatible with such values being both finite in scale and infinite in number. Instead, I suggest there is an inherent endlessness so that any number we can reach by counting is finite but inherently there is no bound to onward succession and this property is the source of the infinite character. Hence emphasis on endlessly beyond any particular value reachable by successive +1 steps from 0 or extensions thereof. ) My point to him is this in effect reduces the infinite claim to a finite claim. HeKS has pointed out that the approach from now in successive recession through the past invites the conceptual confusion that a potential infinite [which is actually finite at any stage of succession but unbounded pointing to what is boundless]. Latterly, he has asked, where's the beef, using a $100 bill, to suggest unless it comes from somewhere, it cannot be passed in succession. Substitute for this, existence to see his point. Given causal succession, any stage of the cosmos . . . contingent . . . has to receive its existence form a prior one sufficient to account for it. But this cannot come from thin air (oops, air is SOME-thing, let's go back to Ari: a rock's never-never dream world . . . ) or be smuggled in as endlessly passed. Every stage is contingent and contingent entities are not causally self explanatory. So, where's the beef? De hamburger bun is empty, in short. KF PS: use the usual limited html tags with angle brackets.kairosfocus
October 6, 2016
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kairosfocus @209 Thank you for filling in the technical details I left out of my post. I very much think, that an eternal past is impossible (just like HeKS). But I think the discussion between HeKS and DaveS suffers from concentrating on side points while leaving out the main point: Does an (hypothetical) eternal past contain any moments removed from the present by an infinite amount of time? If yes, what you says follows immediately and I very much agree with your take. DaveS OTOH seems to think, that an eternal past doesn't contain moments removed from the present by an infinite amount of time. Therefore he doesn't see all those problems that everyone is talking about. My proposition was to concentrate on this issue. After this problem is resolved, everything else should easily fall into place according to what you just wrote. [QUOTE]There is only one serious candidate, after centuries of debates: the inherently good creator God, a necessary and maximally great being, worthy of loyalty and the reasonable service of doing the good in accord with our evident nature.[/QUOTE] Generally, I agree with you on this.hgp
October 6, 2016
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HGP, First, as say the surreal numbers show, there is no one "infinity," so it is better to say that the infinite is endlessly greater than any specific, arbitrarily large but finite counting number we may identify in succession from 0. This captures that there is a specific metric process of succession from zero that reaches specific values, say v, and the onward endless succession beyond any such value: {} -->0 {0} --> 1 {0,1} --> 2 . . . {0,1,2, . . . [v-1]} --> v {0,1,2 . . . v} --> v+1 etc. [without limit, i.e. endlessly] Notice, I am emphasising the endlessness of succession as a key property of this set or construction. Endlessness is not a member as such, but it is a defining characteristic. It is specifically the basis for the claim that the set of counting numbers from zero is transfinite, having order type omega. That is, we see the endlessness and recognise this to be a type of quantity amenable to logical and structural analysis, thus a mathematical quantity. We denote it with a label, omega, and proceed to have other transfinites in succession therefrom. Resorting to the surreals (in effect capturing individual numbers in successive branched vice-grips like jaws of a locking plier starting from {|} and generally using {L|R}), we see all sorts of numbers great and small in a strange tree-like array, of infinitesimal and transfinite character as well as those which are finite. A countable set then is one that may be put in 1:1 correspondence with this counting in +1-step succession finite stages ("counting numbers") set; up to some limit [its scale], or else endlessly. If the latter, the set is also transfinite or infinite in scale. (I actually prefer transfinite. [other transfinites are such that they cannot be so matched, the continuum is a classic example. Just to make sure we are on the same page.) The further point then is, if there were an infinite actual past, then unless "infinite" is meaningless (e.g. a de facto synonym for large but finite . . . as in, every particular value of remote time or stage of the past of the world we inhabit was FINITELY remote from us . . . ), there were specific stages or states of the world, say w, in the deep past. Where, any w is such that it was once the present but is now -- by reason of the hypothesis, for argument -- ENDLESSLY remote beyond any specific past time or stage, say k. Where, further, s0 is say the big bang (finitely successive to k) and sn is now, with more to follow through causally successive connexion. Where, as well onward states follow immediate predecessors causally as a finitely removed onward stage, even as there is causal succession as one steps down the finitely separated rungs of a ladder one after the other. (Rungs of course need not be exactly evenly spaced.) Thus, as has been presented from 65 above and so forth (with the four dot ellipsis representing endless succession not finite succession). Note also, there is no claim that w is a beginning state, just the opposite. Clipping again:
we see (with ellipses of endlessness indicated by FOUR dots): . . . . w+2, w+1, w, w-1, w-2 . . . . k, k-1, . . . s0, s1, s2 . . . sn + –> There is a finite, causally successive stepwise span from s0 to now, no problem. But to get to s0 from w we have to count down across a span that is endlessly extensive. We might as well say: w –> 0, w+1 –>1, etc, . . . . | s0 –> OMEGA, i.e. the order type of the natural numbers as spanned from w. Mathematically, i.e. logically on structure and quantity, we may say that the endlessness of succession can be assigned an order type omega, but that is utterly different from being able to actually stepwise span it and traverse it. No, we see where it would go, and say, okay that endless span has a quantity, omega. We have delivered a logical result on the set as a whole per its logical structure, we have not actually spanned it in causally connected finite stage successive steps . . . . The challenge of endless traverse can be seen by postulating two tapes punched at an even finite interval, say 0.1 inch, starting left and endlessly going right. One pink, P and the other blue B. Advance P by some arbitrarily large but finite k steps, such that k+1, k+2, . . . . are now in 1:1 match with B at 0, 1, 2 . . . . where both are still endless to the right. The import is, endlessness is definable on terms of such a k, k+1 etc having no effect on the continuation to the right and continued 1:1 match of P and B. As a direct implication, at any finite stage k, there is still an endless succession k+1, k+2 etc still to go, proposed finite stage stepwise spanning of endlessness is futile.
In short, there is no warrant for proposing an infinite past as this poses the challenge of spanning the endless in stepwise, finite stage, causally cumulative succession from w to k or whatever way one may otherwise express this. We are warranted instead to suggest that some k, finitely remote from now, is instead the beginning of the world as we know it. To this, we add that it is axiomatic for good reason to see that non-being ["what rocks dream of," per Ari] has no causal powers. So, were there ever utter noting, such would forever obtain. As a world now is, then, there was something at the beginning as a world root that has adequate causal powers for a world such as we experience to come from that root. This raises the issue of being, impossible vs possible and of the latter, contingent vs necessary. A fire is a classic illustration of a contingent possible being, and the form of words "square circle" shows impossibility of being, as core characteristics for each half stand in mutual contradiction. Necessary beings are such that no world may exist without them, they are framework to a world, i.e. they lack dependence on external enabling on/off factors, are such that once a world is they must be there at its root (the only place they can be), and have neither beginning nor end. To see such, try to imagine a world in which two-ness (including the contrast A vs ~A) did not exist. The point is, if the world we inhabit credibly had a begining, it had a causal root that is of adequate existential and causal character to account for it. This, involving, necessary being as an integral part of that root. Where, a serious candidate necessary being (silly parodies such as flying spaghetti monster or any composite entity etc need not apply) will either be impossible or else possible -- existing in at least one possible world -- which then entails existing in any possible world. Yes, we are in unfamiliar and even strange grounds, but this is because we are addressing hard questions beyond what we are wont to do in this day and age, and face questions of being, cause, succession, infinite and more. For instance, unless we are capable of responsible, rational freedom, we are not fit to be able to discuss rationally; including these matters. This means that the root of the world must be adequate to ground rationally free and morally governed beings such as we are. Where gigo-limited, necessarily blindly mechanically interacting computational substrates [think, Pentium chip recall . . . ] cannot account adequately for this. There is only one serious candidate, after centuries of debates: the inherently good creator God, a necessary and maximally great being, worthy of loyalty and the reasonable service of doing the good in accord with our evident nature. If you doubt, simply propose and discuss a serious alternative that does not run into insuperable comparative difficulties. Such as, the self referential incoherence of implying that responsible, rational freedom reduces to blindly mechanical computation or conditioning etc. and/or the nihilistic chaos that moral government reduces to might and/or manipulation make 'right,' 'truth,' 'value,' 'meaning,' 'duty,' 'justice' etc. Big issues are on the table. KFkairosfocus
October 6, 2016
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The following simple equation captures the problem:
{ } x N = { } - - - An empty set never interacts with numbers, no matter how many times you try it, even an infinite number of times.
No matter how many times a $100 bill is promised (see post #159), if no one actually has a $100 bill, then "$100 bill" equals an empty set. If Z is claimed to be carried by Y and Y is claimed to be carried by X and X is claimed to be carried by W … and so forth. And this goes on without an end, but no one is standing on the ground, then no “carrying force” is going upwards through the chain and all claims are connected to what is a perfectly empty set.Origenes
October 5, 2016
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DaveS and HeKS, I think I can see where the problem with your discussion lies. Possibly the following helps you to refocus a bit. The following is (very) non technical, there are much more precise definitions than those given here. First a definition for infinity: (1) Infinity is an entity greater than every (natural) number We're leaving aside the question, whether such an entity can really exist in the real world. Now a really non mathematical definition for sets: (2) A set is a mental bag, where we can put (hypothetical) items into. (3) an infinitite countable set (ICS) is a mental bag that contains all natural numbers (or an equivalent). An ICS has the following properties: (3a) An ICS does NOT contain infinity! (3b) An ICS cannot be counted to the end! In the act of counting an ICS eventually leaves behind any natural number, and so it approaches infinity as a limit (without ever reaching infinity itself) (4) an actual infinite set (AIS) contains more than an ICS, it contains infinity itself. Such sets are frowned upon, because they are really weird, to the point where everyone questions whether they have any connection to reality. Now when you both speak about the eternal past, you use your own mental bags labelled "eternal past". DaveS's bag labelled "infinite past" contains an ICS of past moments but not infinity. HeKS's bag labelled "infinite past" contains infinity in addition to what DaveS has in his bag, so he sees an AIS. With this in mind we can rephrase your discussion as follows: HeKS: When I look into my bag labelled "infinite past" I see some really weird stuff that shouldn't be true in the real world. DaveS: I'm looking into my bag labelled "infinite past" and I don't see anything like what you describe. More helpful would be to discuss the question, whether an infinite past contains/ must contain actual infinity (=an actual infinite amount of past moments) or not. DaveS clearly thinks, it doesn't, while HeKS think it does. When this question is clarified, everything else should follow easily. One pointer: Just because we can enumerate an ICS of past moments, doesn't tell us in itself, whether an eternal past contains an ACTUAL infinite amount of past moments. Those two are not the same. An ICS is not/doesn't contain actual infinity. I think (3b) above tells HeKS that the infinite past must be an AIS. I think the fact that you can enumerate past moments like natural numbers tells DaveS, that the infinite past is an ICS. Hope that helps a bithgp
October 5, 2016
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It's interesting that so much of ID and theistic argument centers around trying to explain concepts that seem (at least to me) to be absurdly obvious, or around making cases that really make themselves once one understands the concepts and terms.William J Murray
October 5, 2016
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DS, stepwise, finite stage cumulative causation is critical to the issue. KFkairosfocus
October 5, 2016
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Origenes,
Indeed. And I get the impression that DaveS is unable to incorporate this causal relationship (this dependency) in the mathematics.
True. The "purely mathematical" arguments I'm concerned with really don't have anything to do with causation, IMHO. For example, my post #180.daveS
October 5, 2016
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HeKS,
In a cosmos with an an infinite past, the existence of the present depends in infinite regress on the prior existence of the past ...
Indeed. And I get the impression that DaveS is unable to incorporate this causal relationship (this dependency) in the mathematics.
... which means it is logically impossible for every member of the set of infinite past moments to have previously been a present moment. There must be an infinite number of “past” moments that were always past but never present.
I agree. There is no "first present". Similarly, there is no first step on the ladder, no first $100 bill and no one standing on the ground.Origenes
October 5, 2016
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