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Atheists Believe “Truth” Has Magical Properties

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At comment 60 in this thread about self-described atheistic materialists who want portray themselves as being moral yet having no basis by which to be moral in any objective sense, Seversky says in response:

“However, it is a choice between able to be good in a way that actually means something and actually matters,…” to whom? That’s always the unspoken part of such a claim. Meaning only exists in the mind of the beholder and something or some one only matters to some one. Believers fell better if they believe that their lives have meaning and matter, which means they need a Creator to whom they matter.

Notice that, according to Seversky, meaning is an entirely subective pheonomena. IOW, in Seversky’s worldview, being good an entirely subjective narrative.  It only exists in a person’s mind.  There is no means by which anyone can be “good” in a way that is objectively valid and objectively meaningful (meaning, it is good to the mind that is the ground of existence, or god).

In the very next paragraph of his response, Seversky attempts to portray an atheist’s happiness as somehow more real than a theist’s happiness, as if the quality or value of ones experience of happiness would be increased if it referred to something objectively real. He uses a quote from Karl Marx to attempt to get his point across:

The abolition of religion as the illusory happiness of the people is the demand for their real happiness. To call on them to give up their illusions about their condition is to call on them to give up a condition that requires illusions. The criticism of religion is, therefore, in embryo, the criticism of that vale of tears of which religion is the halo.

So, after I make the point that being good would have more validity and meaning if it referred to an objectively real commodity, Seversky shoots that down by insisting that being “good” can only be a subjective narrative. Yet, he seems to think that happiness – which which would obviously also be a subjective state of mind in his worldview – can be of a higher quality if it was generated by a correspondence to objective reality (giving up illusions, as Marx said).

In that thread’s OP I said:

This is the tragic nature of the good, moral atheist; they want their good acts to be somehow more real or better than an act a religious fanatic considers and feels is good, but alas, under the logical ramifications of atheistic materialism, their good acts would be the factual, physico-chemical equivalents of Jihadis who felt they were doing good by driving planes into buildings. There is no source distinction between any act anyone does.

Seversky seems to agree with this about morality, but is apparently holding on to the idea that happiness is somehow different; that the happiness generated by physico-chemical processes under an atheist/materialist narrative is somehow of better quality than the happiness experienced by theists, as if the happenstance correspondence of one set of chemically-produced beliefs to physical reality would necessarily mean a concomitant better quality of happiness.  Seversky is apparently asserting that the quality of ones mental state of happiness is proportional to how closely ones beliefs happen to comport with physical reality.  Seversky is free to try and support this assertion, but we all know he cannot.  All this can possibly be is part of Seversky’s anti-theistic narrative; there’s no reason (that I know of) to believe that a theist’s happiness is somehow of less quality than an atheist’s.  Nor is there any reason to believe that theism confers any evolutionary disadvantage.

Under atheistic materialism, there are no bonus points after you die for  believing things that happen to be true, or that happen to correspond to factual reality.  Seversky’s only recourse then, in countering what he refers to as my “Pascal’s Wager” style argument, is that atheistic materialism somehow bestows a happiness quality advantage during life. Perhaps he might extend that argument to include some other ways that atheistic materialism produces some real-world experiential advantage. I’d like to see him or any other atheistic materialist try to make that argument either through logic or some kind of scientific evidence.  It is nothing more than a materialist myth.

The theme here is that for atheistic/materialists it appears to be important to their mythic narrative that atheistic/materialism conveys upon them some sort of meaningful experiential advantage over theists; that somehow, in some real sense, atheism is superior to theism and that it somehow demonstrates some sort of individual superiority (at least in the sense of setting aside “illusions” – which is a recurring theme.). The problem is that the nature of their worldview logically precludes that from even possibly being the case; they cannot deliberately understand and accept true things because their consciousness, sense of free will and responsibility are illusions generated by uncaring matter.

Note how the illusion of self, self-determination and free will that refers to itself as “Seversky” claims that illusions such as he can “set aside” false,  illusory beliefs and reap some kind of factual benefit.  This is an enormous metaphysical myth – that somehow something that is itself an illusion can set aside illusions and see and understand “the truth”, and that such a recognition will be somehow substantively rewarded in some way that escapes other illusions of self that refer to themselves as theists, as if some illusions of self are better than other illusions of self, and as if such a difference substantively matters.

If atheistic materialism is true, then we all have the beliefs we have and act the way we act because such things are caused by physico-chemical forces that have no regard for the truth-value of such thoughts and beliefs.  Additionally, there is no “I” that has supernatural power over what these materials and forces happen to generate.  It’s not like we would have the power to stop a physical process from producing a false belief because that belief is false; our idea that it is false would also be a sensation produced by the same blind physico-chemical forces that produced the false belief in the first place.  Those forces equally produce true and false beliefs and thoughts (wrt factual reality) and also generate our ideas that such thoughts are true and false.  If factually true beliefs happen to coexist with a higher-quality experience of happiness, how on Earth would one evidence such a claim, or be confident that the view of the evidence and logic wasn’t actually false?

It’s far more likely (under Seversky’s worldview) that false beliefs confer some sort of experiential advantage because, if atheistic materialism is true, that is what nature has actually selected for – the supposedly false belief that god and/or a supernatural world exists.  Also, Seversky seems to think that it is important to have true beliefs rather than false ones; but why? Surely he realizes there is no factual basis for the claim that holding a true beliefs confers a better quality of experiential happiness.  Why bother defending the idea that if a programmed biological automaton happens to think things in correspondence with reality that this also happens to correspond with a better quality of (ultimately) illusory happiness? So what if it does?  If Seversky’s worldview is true, our levels of happiness are entirely caused by forces beyond our illusory sense of control and self-determination. In fact, individual happiness itself is an illusory experience of an illusory self; yet Seversky claims the sense of happiness of one illusion of selfhood is less illusory than that experienced by another illusion of selfhood.

What the take-home point here is that Seversky and others, even though they assert themselves atheistic materialists, still argue and act as if they and others have some supernatural power to deliberately discern true beliefs from false and deliberately overpower the physico-chemical processes of the brain to force them to correspond to true beliefs; that true beliefs somehow magically confer a better quality of experiential happiness; that true beliefs are somehow magically necessary or important when it comes to life and the human species.  It is just as likely that false beliefs are necessary both to long-term survival and for higher quality experience of happiness, and that atheistic materialism is an evolutionary dead-end that cannot compete with religious faith when it comes to factually thriving in the real world because it corresponds to physical reality.

The idea that “truth” can be deliberately obtained, forced onto physico-chemical processes, and that it confers upon illusory “selves” a higher quality happiness or evolutionary advantage is an enormous materialist fantasy.  For them, truth is the equivalent of a magical commodity capable of overriding, transforming and guiding physico-chemical processes, and they have utter faith in its ability confer both immediate and long-term benefits to them and humanity.  One wonders if materialists ever thought that, in an actual materialist world, perhaps an illusion of self working under the illusion of self-will with chemically-caused thoughts might actually require false beliefs in order to function successfully and thrive in the factual world, and that is why such beliefs are so widespread and so pervasive historically?

Well, no.  Because whether they admit it or not, whether they realize it or not, they still think truth is in itself some sort of transcendental, supernatural commodity that fundamentally matters and necessarily affects our lives in a positive way if we can deliberately ascertain it and live by it.

 

 

 

 

Comments
KF,
PPPS: I should note again on my logic that if the past was infinite, it must imply that at some time point w for convenience (the then present) there was a time infinitely remote from today, which has derived in cumulative, finite stage causal steps and processes fro0m w. Otherwise, it means nothing when we say there was an infinite past.
This does answer my question from #135 (from my perspective) considering that I assume from the start that all time coordinates are finite, regardless of where we set the origin. And that answer is "yes". To review, even if it is true that for any natural number n that we can compute, the universe already existed n seconds/years/whatever unit ago, the past is finite. In fact, even if it is impossible to form a false statement of the form:
The universe existed more than n billion years ago.
the past is finite. Doesn't that strike you as odd? Each of the statements in the following "potentially infinite" series could be true:
The universe existed 10 billion years ago The universe existed 100 billion years ago The universe existed 1000 billion years ago * * *
yet the past is finite!daveS
October 4, 2016
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PPPS: I should note again on my logic that if the past was infinite, it must imply that at some time point w for convenience (the then present) there was a time infinitely remote from today, which has derived in cumulative, finite stage causal steps and processes fro0m w. Otherwise, it means nothing when we say there was an infinite past.kairosfocus
October 4, 2016
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pps: Note, the timeline of the cosmos is inherently causal and sequenced stage by stage, much as human generations are. This imposes the finite stage, stepwise, sequenced cumulative causal pattern that I have addressed above. It is that pattern that in turn raises the challenge of bridging endlessness in finite stage steps, which is what any proposed infinite past directly implies. Cf 65 above etc.kairosfocus
October 4, 2016
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DS, I have already given enough for you and others to see why proposing an infinite past runs into a serious issue of incoherence. We are instead well warranted to see that the past credibly was finite in duration, and the cosmos therefore had a beginning, per relevant logic. Not just things like evidence pointing to a beginning 13.8 BYA, with no actual evidence of a quasi-physical spacio-temporal world beyond that; never mind my for argument projections. The evidence is, the cosmos had a beginning. The logic of structure and quantity says much the same. This is warranted, and it is further warranted that that beginning did not come from utter non-being, as nothing has no causal capacity. Multiply by our being credibly responsibly and rationally free just to have a reasonable discussion. Mix in evidence of fine tuning of cosmos and design of C-chemistry, aqueous medium life that the fine tuned cosmos sets up. All this puts on the table as the only serious candidate a world-root that sounds a whole lot like the inherently good creator God, a necessary and maximally great being worthy of loyalty and the reasonable service of responsibly doing the good in accord with our evident nature. KF PS: The observed universe evidently existed 13.8 BYA, expressible in seconds, and any number n of s from 0 to that equivalent [~ 2.86 * 10^17 s] will indicate the big bang as a zero point n back relative to it. As for beyond this time, that is another story.kairosfocus
October 3, 2016
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KF, I'm requesting a direct yes/no answer to this question:
Consider the proposition “for every positive integer n we can compute, the universe already existed n seconds ago”. Now suppose this proposition is true. Under that assumption, is the past finite?
daveS
October 3, 2016
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DS, either infinite means what it says or it becomes a synonym for finite. If time (the context of cumulative causal processes) is infinitely old, there must be a stage that is transfinitely remote; on pain of meaninglessness. Hence, implications of w. It is easiest to see this using finite, stepwise stages that cumulatively lead to now. Such are patently ordinal and can be tagged with the integers successively. I simply assigned the big bang event as a convenient zero. Beyond that for infinite past stages, some specific actually once existing then present and now infinitely past stage -- w for convenience -- must be transfinitely . . . endlessly . . . remote (hence w), but your admission just now is in effect there are no such stages. In short, we see the way infinite and finite are being inadvertently conflated as though they both mean actually finite. KF PS: As you know, I argue that every countable we can reach will be finite but the set of naturals continues endlessly beyond any such count. Any two specific counting numbers we can reach or state will be finitely separate, but that just means two finites will be finitely different. The infinitude does not lie here, it has escaped. Which is where transfinite scale of the set of naturals comes in as an essential part of the meaning. Symbolised ever so misleadingly simplistically, as an ellipsis of endlessness.kairosfocus
October 3, 2016
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Correction to #135:
When we propose that the past was/is infinite, we simply mean that it was/is not finite, meaning that it’s not the case, for example, that every event in the universe has occurred within the last 13.8 billion years, say, or in fact any other number of years.
daveS
October 3, 2016
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KF, Thanks, I wrongly interpreted your notation.
This will require that some stage we may tag w (per the above sequence) will be at transfinite remove from sn or s0. Or else, “infinite past” is self contradictory and meaningless.
I (and I think just about everyone else) disagree with this. When we propose that the past was/is infinite, we simply mean that it was/is not finite, meaning that it's not the case, for example, that every event in the universe has occurred within the last 13.8 billion years, say. So let me try this: Consider the proposition "for every positive integer n we can compute, the universe already existed n seconds ago". Now suppose this proposition is true. Under that assumption, is the past finite?daveS
October 3, 2016
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DS, I actually mean w, I forgot that this might suggest omega. I suggest that two distinct real numbers that we specify will be at finite remove the one from the other, as we may only specify finite reals, which will be interwoven with finite integers and indeed finite rationals composed from ratios of integers. This is different from, we have a finite step -wise cumulative causal sequence said to be of transfinite span, i.e. past-infinite. This will require that some stage we may tag w (per the above sequence) will be at transfinite remove from sn or s0. Or else, "infinite past" is self contradictory and meaningless. This, injects an endless span into the reckoning, by meaning of infinite in such an ordinal -- highly material issue -- stepwise successive, cumulative, causal context. And yes, I am highlighting the significance of the ellipsis of endlessness in stipulating the integers in succession per say the von Neumann construction, with omega as order type of the set of naturals (where we interweave the rationals and reals to get a continuum), and so forth. The problem then is not, that w is a beginning point, it is not as we can see. Instead, it is that an endless span would have to be traversed in finite stage cumulative, causally connected successive steps. The P/B thought exercise shows why that necessarily fails. We are warranted to hold that the past is finite and bounded at a definite beginning. KFkairosfocus
October 3, 2016
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KF, One correction: On rereading your #131, I guess your ω and other elements in the sequence are labels for events rather than time coordinates. In that case I'm saying that my assumption that all time coordinates are real implies that for every pair of events a and b in the sequence, the difference in their time coordinates t(a) - t(b) is finite.daveS
October 3, 2016
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KF,
DS, I am not arguing the Tristan Shandy case or anything like it.
Yes, understood. I just felt the "beginningless Tristam Shandy" argument was intriguing, although it really is incompatible with the tack you are taking.
The issue I raise is that if an infinite past of days for convenience has passed to date, then some w must exist in which the world was, where w is in a causally ordered sequence that accumulates to the present and w is infinitely distant in days already past from the big bang, then onward our time.
I have to again say that once you assert the existence of this time coordinate ω infinitely remote from the Big Bang (or the present, or whatever), I'm out. I am starting out with the assumption that all time coordinates are real numbers, and there is no real number ω infinitely distant from the time coordinate of the Big Bang. In fact, any two time coordinates in the model I am using are separated by a finite number of days. You are certainly free to consider more exotic models of an infinite past with non-real or infinite time coordinates, but then you are talking about something different from what I have in mind.daveS
October 3, 2016
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DS, I am not arguing the Tristan Shandy case or anything like it. The issue I raise is that if an infinite past of days for convenience has passed to date, then some w must exist in which the world was, where w is in a causally ordered sequence that accumulates to the present and w is infinitely distant in days already past from the big bang, then onward our time. That is what I showed in the sequence (where 4-dot ellipses are of transfinite scale) at 65 above: . . . . w+2, w+1, w, w-1, w-2 . . . . k, k-1, . . . s0, s1, s2 . . . sn + –> The problem is not that w is a beginning, it is a start point for a count down: w, w-1, w-2 . . . . k, k-1, . . . s0, s1, s2 . . . sn But, this can be put in one to one correspondence from w with: w, w-1, w-2 . . . . 0, 1,2, . . . . This means the endlessness applies and the P/B example shows that the process of count down from w will never complete to reach s0, the big bang. For at any w - k, k finite, due to endlessness we may put this in correspondence: w -k, w- (k+i), w-(k+2) . . . . k, k+1, k+2, . . . . 0, 1,2 . . . . and see that each is equally endless, that is the stepwise cumulative causal succession of days will never exhaust an endless onward process. We are warranted to conclude per best reasonable explanation, that to have arrived at today, there was no endless past. That is, the temporal domain had a beginning that is finitely remote. And as non being has no causal powers, if there were ever utter non being that would forever obtain, and there would not be a world. There is a world, so we are warranted to hold that there was a past with a beginning, and that this implies necessary being at the root of the world. NB sufficient to cause a world in which we exist as responsibly free and rational creatures, and in which there are strong signs of design in the cosmos and in biological life. KFkairosfocus
October 3, 2016
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JAD, a similar case is a fire sustained by heat, oxidiser, fuel and an undisturbed oxidation chain reaction which must be simultaneously present for a fire to begin or be sustained. KFkairosfocus
October 3, 2016
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Querius @ 127, In his work Aquinas (like other medieval thinkers) made the distinction between sequences of causes which are essentially ordered vs. those which are accidentally ordered. He gave the illustration of a stone being moved by a stick which in turn is being moved by a hand as an example of an essentially ordered sequence. A modern example would be of a golf ball being given its momentum by a golf club, which in turn is given its momentum by the arms and hands of the golfer who is intentionally trying drive the golf ball towards a particular goal. Notice that even though the golf ball is designed to fly aerodynamically through the air it has no power in and of itself to do so. It is given that power through an instrumentally connected series of causes. The same thing could be said of a golf club which is used as the intermediary cause. Notice that momentum is given to the golf ball in the instantaneous moment that the golfer hits the ball with his gold club. In other words, the sequence of causes is virtually concurrent at a single moment. William Lane Craig explains it this way:
Aquinas [is] talking about a particular type of causal series… a hierarchically ordered causal series, like a chain holding up a chandelier dangling from the ceiling. The links in the chain are like those instrumental causes, and the chandelier hanging there is the final effect. And there needs to be an anchor point there on the ceiling that is holding the chandelier up. If it were just an infinite series of links then there would be nothing to hold up the chandelier and it would crash to the floor. So he's talking about causes that are ordered hierarchically; they're all simultaneous and they all operate at the same time. He's not talking about the sort of temporally ordered causal series like the chicken and the egg, which could go back to infinity Aquinas thought. He thought you could have hens laying eggs from eternity. So from an egg would hatch a hen, from the hen there would be an egg, from the egg there would be another chicken, and he thought that that could go back to infinity in the past. Remember he believed you can't prove that the past is finite, even though he believed that on the basis of revelation. So Aquinas is talking about a very particular kind of causal series, one in which the causes and effects are not linearly ordered in time, but they are hierarchically ordered at one moment of time. And so the cause that is first is not chronologically first, it's first in the sense of rank, like the general is first in the chain of command, say, but he's not temporally first, if you know what I mean.
Read more: http://www.reasonablefaith.org/a-Rabbi-Looks-at-the-Kalam-Argument#ixzz4M1gWIU9zjohn_a_designer
October 3, 2016
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Creationism: the philosophy which divides reality in 2 fundamental categories of creator and creation. The categories are linked by the mechanism of creation, which is choosing. To choose means to make a possibility, which is in the future, the present or not to make it the present. Creator - all what is in this category chooses - the existence of all what is in this category is a matter of opinion - an opinion is formed by choosing it - for example, love, hate, God the holy spirit, the human soul Creation - all what is in this category is chosen - the existence of all what is in this category is a matter of fact - a fact is obtained by evidence of a creation forcing to produce a 1 to 1 corresponding model of it - for example planets, organisms, mathematics, fantasyfigures So when you apply this scheme, it means for instance that love chooses, it may be the motivation for the decision for people to marry. But the existence of love is a matter of opinion, one cannot model love 1 to 1. One cannot state as fact that married people love each other. It means a planet, like the planet Venus, was chosen to be. It means there was the possibility of a planet Venus, and then this possibility was made the present. Maybe it was 1 decision, maybe it were many decisions. The decisions could have turned out another way, in which case there wouldn't be any planet Venus. One can model the planet Venus 1 to 1 in a book, in the form of words pictures and mathematics, and then one would have all the facts about the planet Venus. What is in fantasy is just as well a matter of fact, as what is out in the universe. When fantasizing about superman, then really and in fact one has an image of superman in mind. The fantasyfigure Superman is just as well a creation, as are the other creations in the natural world.mohammadnursyamsu
October 2, 2016
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john_a_designer,
Causes can and do exist concurrently.
Please explain, John. An example, even theoretical would also be helpful. Thanks, -QQuerius
October 2, 2016
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-Q
For causality to exist, one needs Time to sort out what happened first and what caused what.
Causes can and do exist concurrently. There are some good arguments for God’s existence that use this fact.john_a_designer
October 2, 2016
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KF, HeKS, and anyone else interested: Here's another paper on the "infinite past" issue, which I just ran across, which looks very clear and accessible: "Methuselah's Diary and the Finitude of the Past" by Ben Waters.daveS
October 2, 2016
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For causality to exist, one needs Time to sort out what happened first and what caused what. It's believed that space-time came into existence at the very beginning of the big bang. Thus, causality began with the big bang. -QQuerius
October 2, 2016
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William Lane Craig is famous for popularizing the Kalam cosmological argument. (Anything that begins to exist has a cause/ the universe began to exist/ therefore it had a cause.) However, I prefer another argument he has used in some of his debates-- a reworked version of one of Leibniz’ arguments. It goes like this:
1. Anything that exists has an explanation of its existence (either in the necessity of its own nature or in an external cause). 2. If the universe has an explanation of its existence, that explanation is God. 3. The universe exists. 4. Therefore, the universe has an explanation of its existence. (from 1, 3) 5. Therefore, the explanation of the existence of the universe is God. (from 2, 4)
Read more: http://www.reasonablefaith.org/the-leibnizian-cosmological-argument#ixzz4LtiUs6Su While I like this version I think we could improve it by revising the argument slightly as follows.
1. Anything that exists has an explanation of its existence (either in the necessity of its own nature or in an external cause). 2. If the universe has an explanation of its existence, that explanation is an eternally existing (or self-existing) transcendent Mind. 3. The universe exists…
My reason for the alteration is that many non-theists don’t really understand what we mean by “God”. For example they tend to confuse God with gods. The advantage of Leibniz argument is that it is pre-Big Bang. In other words, it works even if we don’t know whether or not the universe had a beginning.john_a_designer
October 1, 2016
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Seversky, "The problem seems to be that while we cannot accept infinities, we cannot escape them. An infinite regress of cause and effect is rejected for various reasons. But the only alternative is to propose an Uncaused First Cause, however contradictory that might sound. Unfortunately that doesn’t really help. If, as we agree, you cannot get something from nothing and if an Uncaused First Cause was not the effect of a preceding cause by definition, then that Uncaused First Cause must always have existed. In other words, we are back to an infinity." It seems you are conflating the problem of a physical space-time infinity with a non-physical one, as though they are the same. infinite regresses are absurd in the physical sense, because of our inability to traverse an actual physical space-time infinite. A uncaused First Cause is not contradictory in that sense, because it is not a physical space-time infinite. Such a first cause transcends space-time.CannuckianYankee
October 1, 2016
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Seversky, an uncaused first cause is not a self-contradiction. Once there is a world, there is a necessary -- and thus uncaused -- being in its framework. (For simple instance try to conceive of a world before two-ness existed, or where it ceases to exist, including facets such as the contrast of distinct things such as A and ~A) Second, so long as we are responsibly and rationally free enough to be able to genuinely argue via ground-consequent (instead of merely go gigo-limited computing via cause-effect chains), we are self-moved, ensouled first causes. The perceived contradiction arises because of prior conceptions that make a necessary being, first cause of the cosmos seem absurd. When, we would be better advised to consider the comparative difficulties challenge as regards roots of the world. KFkairosfocus
October 1, 2016
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Sorry, if I misread your intent, I withdraw that part of my post.
No problem :)
But just because something makes you feel good doesn’t necessarily make it true.
Absolutely agree but you do realize that several Atheists would argue that Atheism makes them feel good? I remember quite a few saying being free from the "shackles of faith" is exceedingly liberating.Vy
October 1, 2016
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One other point: in the OP WJM wrote
In the very next paragraph of his response, Seversky attempts to portray an atheist’s happiness as somehow more real than a theist’s happiness, as if the quality or value of ones experience of happiness would be increased if it referred to something objectively real. He uses a quote from Karl Marx to attempt to get his point across:
The abolition of religion as the illusory happiness of the people is the demand for their real happiness. To call on them to give up their illusions about their condition is to call on them to give up a condition that requires illusions. The criticism of religion is, therefore, in embryo, the criticism of that vale of tears of which religion is the halo.
So, after I make the point that being good would have more validity and meaning if it referred to an objectively real commodity, Seversky shoots that down by insisting that being “good” can only be a subjective narrative. Yet, he seems to think that happiness – which which would obviously also be a subjective state of mind in his worldview – can be of a higher quality if it was generated by a correspondence to objective reality (giving up illusions, as Marx said).
As far as I remember, I never implied that accepting an atheist/materialist (A/M) account of the world would be likely to make anyone happier. Quite the reverse. Living in a purposeless universe, filled with dangers and forces that could snuff us out in an instant, is a bleak prospect. The reason I quoted Marx is because he recognized, as many of us do, that religion offers a powerfully appealing alternative to that bleak prospect. That's why I think anyone who thinks religions are going to disappear any time soon are deluding themselves. As I see it, there is nothing wrong with living in a way that makes one feel good, as long a it causes no harm to others. But just because something makes you feel good doesn't necessarily make it true.Seversky
October 1, 2016
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Vy, Sorry, if I misread your intent, I withdraw that part of my post. And I meant, in that series of posts above, "actual infinity" rather than "complete infinity".daveS
October 1, 2016
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Note that at least one poster in this thread does seem to believe that it is logically impossible for God to create a complete infinity (see #100).
It may seem so but my post was to point out the fact that some (most) Atheists seem to think that because they can string up a bunch of words to form a seemingly coherent statement and then ask if God can do X concerning it else Y proves something. As to "complete infinity", I have no idea what you're trying to describe.Vy
October 1, 2016
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Here is an interesting article which I think has some relevance to the present discussion.
In the course of his writings, Leibniz developed an approach to questions of modality—necessity, possibility, contingency—that not only served an important function within his general metaphysics, epistemology, and philosophical theology but also has continuing interest today. Indeed, it has been suggested that 20th-century developments in modal logic were either based on Leibnizian insights or at least had a Leibnizian spirit.
http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/leibniz-modal/ For example:
A possible world, however, is not simply a set of compossible individuals. According to Leibniz, a possible world also entails certain laws of nature. As Leibniz says to Arnauld in a letter from 14 July 1686, “I think there is an infinity of possible ways in which to create the world, according to the different designs which God could form, and that each possible world depends on certain principal designs or purposes of God which are distinctive of it, that is, certain primary free decrees (conceived sub ratione possibilitatis) or certain laws of the general order of this possible universe with which they are in accord and whose concept they determine, as they do also the concepts of all the individual substances which must enter into this same universe.” (G II 51/L 333)
john_a_designer
October 1, 2016
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The problem seems to be that while we cannot accept infinities, we cannot escape them. An infinite regress of cause and effect is rejected for various reasons. But the only alternative is to propose an Uncaused First Cause, however contradictory that might sound. Unfortunately that doesn't really help. If, as we agree, you cannot get something from nothing and if an Uncaused First Cause was not the effect of a preceding cause by definition, then that Uncaused First Cause must always have existed. In other words, we are back to an infinity.Seversky
October 1, 2016
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KF, In this case, I wasn't referring to your argument about finite stage cumulative processes. Note that at least one poster in this thread does seem to believe that it is logically impossible for God to create a complete infinity (see #100).daveS
October 1, 2016
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DS, that a stepwise, finite stage cumulative process cannot accumulate to spanning a transfinite range is not equivalent to a speculative cosmos that would have to have a drastically different physics than is warranted for our own. Similarly, there are key metaphysical concepts or constructs that are well warranted but seem incredible to us. Like, as simple analogy, being able to stand at one point on Earth and be due north of London, Kingston Jamaica and Tokyo. Sometimes it is inadequate or false concepts we have that blind us to things that are actually well founded. One such is something like the significance of impossible vs possible and necessary vs contingent beings. KFkairosfocus
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