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Atheists Believe “Truth” Has Magical Properties

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At comment 60 in this thread about self-described atheistic materialists who want portray themselves as being moral yet having no basis by which to be moral in any objective sense, Seversky says in response:

“However, it is a choice between able to be good in a way that actually means something and actually matters,…” to whom? That’s always the unspoken part of such a claim. Meaning only exists in the mind of the beholder and something or some one only matters to some one. Believers fell better if they believe that their lives have meaning and matter, which means they need a Creator to whom they matter.

Notice that, according to Seversky, meaning is an entirely subective pheonomena. IOW, in Seversky’s worldview, being good an entirely subjective narrative.  It only exists in a person’s mind.  There is no means by which anyone can be “good” in a way that is objectively valid and objectively meaningful (meaning, it is good to the mind that is the ground of existence, or god).

In the very next paragraph of his response, Seversky attempts to portray an atheist’s happiness as somehow more real than a theist’s happiness, as if the quality or value of ones experience of happiness would be increased if it referred to something objectively real. He uses a quote from Karl Marx to attempt to get his point across:

The abolition of religion as the illusory happiness of the people is the demand for their real happiness. To call on them to give up their illusions about their condition is to call on them to give up a condition that requires illusions. The criticism of religion is, therefore, in embryo, the criticism of that vale of tears of which religion is the halo.

So, after I make the point that being good would have more validity and meaning if it referred to an objectively real commodity, Seversky shoots that down by insisting that being “good” can only be a subjective narrative. Yet, he seems to think that happiness – which which would obviously also be a subjective state of mind in his worldview – can be of a higher quality if it was generated by a correspondence to objective reality (giving up illusions, as Marx said).

In that thread’s OP I said:

This is the tragic nature of the good, moral atheist; they want their good acts to be somehow more real or better than an act a religious fanatic considers and feels is good, but alas, under the logical ramifications of atheistic materialism, their good acts would be the factual, physico-chemical equivalents of Jihadis who felt they were doing good by driving planes into buildings. There is no source distinction between any act anyone does.

Seversky seems to agree with this about morality, but is apparently holding on to the idea that happiness is somehow different; that the happiness generated by physico-chemical processes under an atheist/materialist narrative is somehow of better quality than the happiness experienced by theists, as if the happenstance correspondence of one set of chemically-produced beliefs to physical reality would necessarily mean a concomitant better quality of happiness.  Seversky is apparently asserting that the quality of ones mental state of happiness is proportional to how closely ones beliefs happen to comport with physical reality.  Seversky is free to try and support this assertion, but we all know he cannot.  All this can possibly be is part of Seversky’s anti-theistic narrative; there’s no reason (that I know of) to believe that a theist’s happiness is somehow of less quality than an atheist’s.  Nor is there any reason to believe that theism confers any evolutionary disadvantage.

Under atheistic materialism, there are no bonus points after you die for  believing things that happen to be true, or that happen to correspond to factual reality.  Seversky’s only recourse then, in countering what he refers to as my “Pascal’s Wager” style argument, is that atheistic materialism somehow bestows a happiness quality advantage during life. Perhaps he might extend that argument to include some other ways that atheistic materialism produces some real-world experiential advantage. I’d like to see him or any other atheistic materialist try to make that argument either through logic or some kind of scientific evidence.  It is nothing more than a materialist myth.

The theme here is that for atheistic/materialists it appears to be important to their mythic narrative that atheistic/materialism conveys upon them some sort of meaningful experiential advantage over theists; that somehow, in some real sense, atheism is superior to theism and that it somehow demonstrates some sort of individual superiority (at least in the sense of setting aside “illusions” – which is a recurring theme.). The problem is that the nature of their worldview logically precludes that from even possibly being the case; they cannot deliberately understand and accept true things because their consciousness, sense of free will and responsibility are illusions generated by uncaring matter.

Note how the illusion of self, self-determination and free will that refers to itself as “Seversky” claims that illusions such as he can “set aside” false,  illusory beliefs and reap some kind of factual benefit.  This is an enormous metaphysical myth – that somehow something that is itself an illusion can set aside illusions and see and understand “the truth”, and that such a recognition will be somehow substantively rewarded in some way that escapes other illusions of self that refer to themselves as theists, as if some illusions of self are better than other illusions of self, and as if such a difference substantively matters.

If atheistic materialism is true, then we all have the beliefs we have and act the way we act because such things are caused by physico-chemical forces that have no regard for the truth-value of such thoughts and beliefs.  Additionally, there is no “I” that has supernatural power over what these materials and forces happen to generate.  It’s not like we would have the power to stop a physical process from producing a false belief because that belief is false; our idea that it is false would also be a sensation produced by the same blind physico-chemical forces that produced the false belief in the first place.  Those forces equally produce true and false beliefs and thoughts (wrt factual reality) and also generate our ideas that such thoughts are true and false.  If factually true beliefs happen to coexist with a higher-quality experience of happiness, how on Earth would one evidence such a claim, or be confident that the view of the evidence and logic wasn’t actually false?

It’s far more likely (under Seversky’s worldview) that false beliefs confer some sort of experiential advantage because, if atheistic materialism is true, that is what nature has actually selected for – the supposedly false belief that god and/or a supernatural world exists.  Also, Seversky seems to think that it is important to have true beliefs rather than false ones; but why? Surely he realizes there is no factual basis for the claim that holding a true beliefs confers a better quality of experiential happiness.  Why bother defending the idea that if a programmed biological automaton happens to think things in correspondence with reality that this also happens to correspond with a better quality of (ultimately) illusory happiness? So what if it does?  If Seversky’s worldview is true, our levels of happiness are entirely caused by forces beyond our illusory sense of control and self-determination. In fact, individual happiness itself is an illusory experience of an illusory self; yet Seversky claims the sense of happiness of one illusion of selfhood is less illusory than that experienced by another illusion of selfhood.

What the take-home point here is that Seversky and others, even though they assert themselves atheistic materialists, still argue and act as if they and others have some supernatural power to deliberately discern true beliefs from false and deliberately overpower the physico-chemical processes of the brain to force them to correspond to true beliefs; that true beliefs somehow magically confer a better quality of experiential happiness; that true beliefs are somehow magically necessary or important when it comes to life and the human species.  It is just as likely that false beliefs are necessary both to long-term survival and for higher quality experience of happiness, and that atheistic materialism is an evolutionary dead-end that cannot compete with religious faith when it comes to factually thriving in the real world because it corresponds to physical reality.

The idea that “truth” can be deliberately obtained, forced onto physico-chemical processes, and that it confers upon illusory “selves” a higher quality happiness or evolutionary advantage is an enormous materialist fantasy.  For them, truth is the equivalent of a magical commodity capable of overriding, transforming and guiding physico-chemical processes, and they have utter faith in its ability confer both immediate and long-term benefits to them and humanity.  One wonders if materialists ever thought that, in an actual materialist world, perhaps an illusion of self working under the illusion of self-will with chemically-caused thoughts might actually require false beliefs in order to function successfully and thrive in the factual world, and that is why such beliefs are so widespread and so pervasive historically?

Well, no.  Because whether they admit it or not, whether they realize it or not, they still think truth is in itself some sort of transcendental, supernatural commodity that fundamentally matters and necessarily affects our lives in a positive way if we can deliberately ascertain it and live by it.

 

 

 

 

Comments
KF,
If there were an infinite past, then there HAS to have been an infinitely remote point of time, some past stage w that is endlessly remote from now in a way that a transfinite succession of steps therefrom has led to now. Otherwise, you are trying to assign a finitely remote value and properties to the proposed infinite past.
PS: There are not infinitely many integers, each finitely distant in steps from 0; ...
I'm sorry, KF, but these are just non-starters for me. I think it's very difficult to have exchange on this issue when we have such a fundamental disagreement right out of the gate. It does raise an issue which I think is interesting, however: Can one who is some flavor of finitist (mathematically) perhaps still accept the idea of an infinite past (so an "infinity" in the world)? Presumably you agree that the actual remote history of the universe is independent of your (and my) mind, and also our limitations, including the fact that we can't finish counting infinite sets "in time". Maybe there are or could be completed infinities in the universe, but we can't comprehend them?daveS
September 30, 2016
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DS, while time pressure is on just now, a quick thought. The issues pivot on there being a world, which raises issues of roots of being. Non-being has no causal capacity so if ever there were utter nothing, such would forever obtain. This means -- strange as it may at first sound -- if a world is, something always was, something at causal root. Where, that points to necessary being that is integral to the framework for a world and which is material to the cause of contingent beings such as we observe and exemplify. Necessary beings will be things like abstracta or minds, both of which can constrain reality (think about mathematical constraints to the point where it seems magical, almost). The cosmos does not so much require an explanation as it requires a causal root; which is of explanatory character also. Time up for now. KF PS: Entropy is time's arrow and is keyed to random molecular level behaviour and trends that imposes.kairosfocus
September 30, 2016
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Origenes,
Needless to say that I’m no cosmologist, but it seems obvious to me that, without intervention, the universe is heading for “heat death”. In my understanding of the second law of thermodynamics there can be no other outcome. Stars will die and planets will loose their internal heat. Therefore an eternal universe—a universe that just is—doesn’t make sense.
I think you are right about the "heat death" part, at least according to the current evidence. But even if the universe is not eternal, does it require an explanation? I don't know.daveS
September 30, 2016
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WJM, I suggest a God who is capable of design, communication/language, is inherently good (including loving) setting basis for moral government, etc., will be personal in a significant sense that makes oour hag=ving imago dei in relevant senses a meaningful claim. That is volitional, decision-making, moral in character, intelligent and communicative in language, and more. KFkairosfocus
September 30, 2016
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daveS said:
And yes, I’m not that keen to discuss entities such as a non-personal god, for example.
Why?
And I strongly disagree that I’m focusing on a mere “superhumanbeing”.
Yet, the content of your responses, such as your examples of "compelling evidence", seem to indicate that is exactly what you are talking about. Further, the nature and wording of your questions:
I have in mind a very mainstream, Christain-centric admittedly, conception of who God is.
... indicates the same ... you ask, "who" god is? If god is the ground of existence, god is not, in any meaningful sense of the term, a "who".
I don’t have anything more to say about #54 presently, because I believe it is based partly on a false premise—that I am thinking of God as a mere “superhumanbeing”.
I think that you believe you are not thinking about god in that manner, but you continue to ask question that indicate you are thinking about god in that manner. I suspect you still do not comprehend what "ground of existence" means, nor comprehend much of anything I have personally said about my views about god, because you ask the following questions:
But I will ask, is the God you believe in a personal God?
How can what is the very ground of my existence not be both personal and universal? What can you possibly mean by that term wrt what I have already said? Are you asking if god is some sort of personality I can interact with? And then this:
And if so, do others worship the same God as you?
We obviously do not all "worship" the same concept of god. I'm not sure what you mean by "worship". If you mean "a feeling of reverence and and adoration", all we can have those feelings towards are our concepts of god. I think some concepts of god are more rationally consistent and more practically useful than others. It is these kinds of questions that make me wonder how much you've thought about any of this. For example, I love my wife with all my heart, but all I know of her is my concept of her based on my experience of her. That is all I can rationally say that I actually love. I can't read her mind or experience her state of actual being; I assume/believe (act and think as if true) that my concept of her is a fairly close approximation of who/what she really is, but it is still necessarily my concept of her that I love. My concept of god is a god that doesn't require nor asks for worship. The god I conceptualize doesn't even care if you're an atheist or not. I'm not saying recognition, gratitude and worship of god are not useful and productive behaviors or states - I think they are. But I don't think god demands or requests such behaviors or states. That's entirely up to us. But, I'll leave the abstract arguments to others who have already presented them quite well. I'd like to return to the issue of how you form your beliefs. You said:
Depending on circumstances, the fact that these people are yelling about a bomb could be compelling evidence on its own (for example, if I knew the people and felt they were trustworthy).
So, you are saying here that one form of "compelling evidence" is the testimony of people you know and trust. If people you know and trust tell you that they have experienced god, would you then believe in god?William J Murray
September 30, 2016
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DS, I fully endorse HeKS' argument and have just said that it expresses aptly in words the logic in the sequence I have used in one form or another since the beginning of the year. I am trying to lay out in a causally connected finite stage sequence, what is implied by claiming an actually completed transfinite past of successive cumulative finite causal stages to now. (I of course point out that a cumulative succession of infinitesimals is not relevant; Zeno is not part of the problem.) As cause is past to present, present to future . . . connected to entropy as time's arrow . . . to go from w to k requires actual traversal and completion of a transfinite stepwise process. But such is inherently non algorithmic and impossible of completion. We are only justified in going back to some finitely remote k, an actual finitely remote beginning point. And I am not committed to k being s0, the bang. Where, this is a good reason to disbelieve notions of an actually completed infinite past of successive cumulative finite stages to reach now. Note, the distinction from, it is possible to in effect construct the negative integers branch of the surreals . . . which is not done in actually completed infinite accumulations of finite steps and which includes generous use of ellipses of endlessness which are inherently non algorithmic due to being endless. KF PS: Oscillatory sequences run into many difficulties not least accumulated entropy and no serious bounce mechanism, multiplied by a density issue that points to endless expansion. Where if anything the rate is seen as speeding up as of last I checked. IIRC 100 bounces is the proposed upper limit, i.e. endless oscillation is non-viable.kairosfocus
September 30, 2016
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HeKS:
When traveling away from zero and toward “infinity” in either direction you are only ever dealing with a potential infinite. When you are traveling toward zero and from “infinity” then you are suddenly talking about an actual or completed infinite that is traversed through a series of finite steps, and that is what is impossible. As long as you allow yourself the cheat of imagining moving backwards through time toward infinity then you are never going to appreciate the logical incoherence of an infinite past or infinite regress of events.
Very well put. This is what I tried to capture in the sequence: . . . . w+2, w+1, w, w-1, w-2 . . . . k, k-1, . . . s0, s1, s2 . . . sn + –> It is not just that one may regress in thought about the past from sn [now] to s0 [bang] and even k [some finitely remote antecedent to s0], these being finitely remote. Nor is it that there is some transfinite onward succession but that if there were an actually completed endless past then there must have been some w that is transfinitely remote in steps from sn and which is causally contributory to sn, now. It matters not that at such a w there is an onward endless regress given by the leading 4-dot ellipsis. The problem is that there is such an ellipsis from w to k. That ellipsis would have to be completed in finite, cumulative causal stages to get to w, and we know logically [cf the P/B tape thought exercise] that such cannot be traversed in steps. That is, there was no actualised physically, causally connected w that then spans a transfinite cumulative stepwise process to k, from which sn can be reached in finite stage steps. That is, we are only justified to propose some k as a finitely remote beginning. Which calls for a causally adequate, finitely remote world root. A begin-NER to account for a credible begin-NING. Where some aspect of that root must be necessary being, with all that entails. KFkairosfocus
September 30, 2016
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DS, pardon but I think you are making a contradiction in terms. If there were an infinite past, then there HAS to have been an infinitely remote point of time, some past stage w that is endlessly remote from now in a way that a transfinite succession of steps therefrom has led to now. Otherwise, you are trying to assign a finitely remote value and properties to the proposed infinite past. I agree, any actually reachable point in the past will be finitely remote on the premise of successive causal stages of finite character, but that is my point. Namely, this includes a beginning at some k. My underlying point, is that a proper understanding of a set of transfinite cardinality constructed on a stepwise ordinal succession requires that there be a recognition of an ellipsis of endlessness which cannot be completed by some finite stage stepwise cumulative process. That is what the Math is telling us, and it is what the P vs B thought exercise underscores. I agree, if there were ever utter non-being such would forever obtain, so if a world now is, something always was, but that something has to be of character that is radically different from an infinite stepwise cumulative succession of causal stages going back to an infinite past material or quasi-material physical cosmos. What fills this bill will be a necessary being integral to the framework for this or any world to exist, and with adequate causal capability to serve as world-root. God in some form is one serious viable candidate [unless it can be shown that such a God is impossible as a square circle is impossible], an infinite past material world that is stepwise causally cumulative is not. KF PS: There are not infinitely many integers, each finitely distant in steps from 0; there are endlessly many in principle possible steps but any reachable value of an integer, z, will be finitely remote for reasons tied to the P/B example as was again given. To get to the order type of the set of natural numbers from 0, we are forced to reckon with the ellipsis of endlessness. That ellipsis is an implicit recognition that we cannot actually complete the endlessness cumulatively in steps of finite stage, and the only meaningful sense of "distance" is number of steps of count from 0, on {} -->0, {0} --> 1, {0,1} --> 2 etc ENDLESSLY. What we do is to impose a logical in principle and deliver the order type of that endless succession as a new quantity logically accessed, OMEGA, the first transfinite ordinal. So, we never actually show that all z in N are finite, but instead all that we can reach in stepwise iterative definition will be finite, and there is no natural limit to the process, so endlessness has to be incorporated into the definition of N; that is N is non algorithmic as an algorithm must be finite. No algorithm can be constructed to actually complete N, i.e. there are not infinitely many finite cumulative steps from 0. Saying there are infinitely many finite numbers in N is in my considered view a poor and even contradictory expression. That is why we had that exchange at the beginning of the year on this exact subject.kairosfocus
September 30, 2016
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DaveS @66,
Whether there has to be an explanation for the universe, and whether we have to give up on rationality if there is none, I don’t know.
Needless to say that I'm no cosmologist, but it seems obvious to me that, without intervention, the universe is heading for "heat death". In my understanding of the second law of thermodynamics there can be no other outcome. Stars will die and planets will loose their internal heat. Therefore an eternal universe—a universe that just is—doesn't make sense. It follows that the universe is in need of an explanation. This conclusion seems so inescapable to me that I don't understand how people can seriously hold another view. You are in good company though. For instance, during the famous Coplestone vs Russell debate, the latter argued against Coplestone's first cause argument by saying " ... the universe is just there, and that's all." N.B. this debate took place in 1948, before the acceptance of the Big Bang.Origenes
September 29, 2016
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HeKS, It seems you are making somewhat different arguments than KF is, so I should clarify my position. I claim that the arguments which assert that an infinite past entails the existence of instants in time infinitely remote from the present, are erroneous and therefore don't succeed in demonstrating that an infinite past is impossible. This type of argument is what got the original thread started. I also don't believe that an infinite past raises any purely logical or mathematical difficulties. I don't know if you agree with this, but I haven't seen any specific logical or mathematical problems raised. You can say that beginningless processes are incoherent, but can you pinpoint any particular contradictions, for example? JAD brought up the infinitely old oscillating universe cosmology, which was apparently considered quite viable at one time (and actually survives, I believe, but is on life support), and I don't see anything obviously incoherent about the idea. Now I don't claim to make a positive case that beginningless processes can or do actually exist in this universe. I'm just saying that I don't think you can knock them down via logic or mathematics alone.
Didn’t you actually cite one such attempt in the other thread? And I think even you admitted that it didn’t really work (unless it was someone else in that thread).
Yes, I do remember reading a paper which supposedly supported my position, but which I didn't think succeeded. There were actually several I ran across, on both sides of the argument, which I felt were quite weak. Edit: Just saw this:
Rather, I’m saying that the arguments have utterly failed to convince me that the concept or proposition of an infinite past is even logically coherent. The more I think about it, the more clear it is to me that it is logically incoherent, and no argument I’ve heard on the other side has caused me to move even a hair’s breadth in the other direction.
The first sentence sounds totally reasonable to me. I'm not trying to make a positive case for an infinite past, but rather to show that alleged disproofs of an infinite past don't work. Regarding the second sentence, if in the future you can demonstrate that it's incoherent, I would be eager to see that.daveS
September 29, 2016
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By the way, I just want to clarify that when I said in #71...
I’ve read some philosophical articles on the subject and read attempts by people to defend the possibility of an infinite past, watched lectures and presentations in which people tried to defend it, and have seen people put forward such arguments in debate, and I’ve found them universally unconvincing to the point that they didn’t really seem to make any progress towards making the concept coherent.
... I meant precisely what I said. In other words, I'm not saying "I'm not convinced" in the way that atheists on this site typically throw that statement around with respect to the evidence for God's existence. I'm not saying that I've decided some amount of evidence for an infinite past is just not sufficient to convince me it's true. There really is no evidence for that. All the evidence points the other way. What we're talking about here is arguments, and even there I'm not saying that the arguments for an infinite past have simply failed to convince me that an infinite past is true. Rather, I'm saying that the arguments have utterly failed to convince me that the concept or proposition of an infinite past is even logically coherent. The more I think about it, the more clear it is to me that it is logically incoherent, and no argument I've heard on the other side has caused me to move even a hair's breadth in the other direction.HeKS
September 29, 2016
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daveS,
But we’re not traveling toward zero from “infinity”, abstract concept or not. Keep in mind that there is no starting point in this exercise. It’s a beginningless process, in WLC’s vocabulary.
That is precisely my point. I'm using a shorthand here where I went into a good amount of detail in the other thread to explain exactly what I was saying the problem was with this way of looking at things, but I don't really feel like repeating myself in such detail here. A beginningless process is one that is never begun, that it is impossible to begin, but which is claimed to at some point be finished.
It is true that the number of seconds, say, elapsed in this process up to the present is a completed infinity, but if you simply assert that this is impossible, you’re begging the question.
A step-wise traversal of the infinite is something that, on its face, is nonsensical, and I explained the problem in some detail in the other thread (as did some others in different ways). The notion is prima facie incoherent and as such the burden of proof lies on those who would seek to claim that the traversal of an infinite temporal past can be made coherent as a concrete and truly existent reality (as opposed to just an abstract mathematical concept).
Have you read any of the literature on this subject, by the way?
Not mathematical. As I've admitted on this site several times, math is a weak area for me (though it's one I eventually hope to shore up). I've read some philosophical articles on the subject and read attempts by people to defend the possibility of an infinite past, watched lectures and presentations in which people tried to defend it, and have seen people put forward such arguments in debate, and I've found them universally unconvincing to the point that they didn't really seem to make any progress towards making the concept coherent. They largely seemed to fall into the trap of confusing potential and completed infinities, or resorted to abstract infinities, or tried to argue that certain other things constituted completed infinities that actually didn't. Didn't you actually cite one such attempt in the other thread? And I think even you admitted that it didn't really work (unless it was someone else in that thread).HeKS
September 29, 2016
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HeKS,
As usual, every time you make this statement you clearly seem to be failing to take into account the arrow of time. Yes, it is true that any particular integer is finite steps away from zero, whether you’re going in the positive or negative direction, but as I took great pains to try to explain to you in that other thread, this is irrelevant when the task you’re faced with traveling towards zero from some abstract concept of either positive or negative infinity.
When you are traveling toward zero and from “infinity” then you are suddenly talking about an actual or completed infinite that is traversed through a series of finite steps, and that is what is impossible.
But we're not traveling toward zero from "infinity", abstract concept or not. Keep in mind that there is no starting point in this exercise. It's a beginningless process, in WLC's vocabulary. It is true that the number of seconds, say, elapsed in this process up to the present is a completed infinity, but if you simply assert that this is impossible, you're begging the question. Have you read any of the literature on this subject, by the way?daveS
September 29, 2016
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daveS,
Just as there are infinitely many integers, each finitely distant from 0, the past could be infinite without any particular instants in time being infinitely remote from the present. In other words, when I posit an infinite past, I’m not committed to having any omegas on my time axis.
As usual, every time you make this statement you clearly seem to be failing to take into account the arrow of time. Yes, it is true that any particular integer is finite steps away from zero, whether you're going in the positive or negative direction, but as I took great pains to try to explain to you in that other thread, this is irrelevant when the task you're faced with traveling towards zero from some abstract concept of either positive or negative infinity. When traveling away from zero and toward "infinity" in either direction you are only ever dealing with a potential infinite. When you are traveling toward zero and from "infinity" then you are suddenly talking about an actual or completed infinite that is traversed through a series of finite steps, and that is what is impossible. As long as you allow yourself the cheat of imagining moving backwards through time toward infinity then you are never going to appreciate the logical incoherence of an infinite past or infinite regress of events.HeKS
September 29, 2016
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The late Cornell university astronomer Carl Sagan was well aware of this historical conflict between naturalism and theism, or as he described it, between science and religion. In his book Broca’s Brain, in a chapter titled, “A Sunday Sermon,” Sagan appears to vacillate about the relationship of science and religion. At times he seems to be sounding a conciliatory note, but then, at other times, he’s confrontational. For example, he writes, “A universe that is infinitely old and a God who is infinitely old are, I think, equally deep mysteries.” However, a few pages earlier he praises a book by Cornell universities’ founder and president, Andrew Dickson White, entitled A History of the Warfare of Science with Theology in Christendom. Despite Sagan’s enthusiastic endorsement, White’s book has almost universally been discredited by historians of science as being more an anti-religious propaganda piece rather than a work of serious scholarship. Most historians of science reject the so-called warfare thesis put forth in White’s book as a myth. The relationship between science and the Christian faith is much more complicated and nuanced than White implies. Sagan, however, appears to uncritically swallow White’s thesis hook-line-and-sinker. As a Christian-theist, who has thought long and deeply about the basic assumptions underlying my world view, I don’t think Sagan, along with other likeminded naturalist’s, really understand the fundamental differences between the two world views. They are not really equal. For example, the naturalistic worldview that Sagan seemed to prefer, requires an infinite regress of causes. However, is such an infinite regress something that is scientifically provable? Is it even possible? Sagan thought it was at least possible. He thought it was possible we lived in an oscillating universe that has gone through an infinite number of cycles, each cycle beginning with a new Big Bang which then ultimately collapses on itself. However that idea has since been discredited. It is now known that the universe is expanding too quickly to ever collapse back on itself. So, we do not live in an oscillating universe. However, Sagan also thought that mathematics was on his side. He writes,
Humans seem to have a natural abhorrence of an infinite regression of causes, and this distaste is at the root of the most famous and most effective demonstrations of the existence of God by Aristotle and Thomas Aquinas. But these thinkers lived before the infinite series was a mathematical commonplace. If the differential and integral calculus or transfinite arithmetic had been invented in Greece in the fifth century B.C., and not subsequently suppressed, the history of religion in the West might have been very different-or at any rate we would have seen less of the pretension that theological doctrine can be convincingly demonstrated by rational argument to those who reject alleged divine revelation, as Aquinas attempted in the Summa Contra Gentiles.(p.335)
The famous German mathematician David Hilbert would have disagreed. He wrote, “The infinite is nowhere to be found in reality. It neither exists in nature nor provides a legitimate basis for rational thought… The role that remains for the infinite to play is solely that of an idea.” So, according to Hilbert an infinite sequence of real causes does not exist. Of course other mathematicians would disagree. But the fact that mathematicians disagree about the existence of actual infinities cast doubt on the idea that the theological arguments would have been easily undermined. Indeed one could just as well argue that it would have had little effect over the status quo. It certainly doesn’t provide the knockout argument that Sagan thought it would.john_a_designer
September 29, 2016
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KF, I think much of what you sketch out is plausible (I don't see how anyone could have a problem with your form of the PSR, for example). But I must point out once more that this does not hold:
I simply note that if there were such a succession, at some pointw, it had to have been endlessly remote from the sequence since a useful beginning point, say 13.85 BYA, set as s0, then s1, . . . sn, now.
Just as there are infinitely many integers, each finitely distant from 0, the past could be infinite without any particular instants in time being infinitely remote from the present. In other words, when I posit an infinite past, I'm not committed to having any omegas on my time axis.daveS
September 29, 2016
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Origenes,
I don’t understand why you doubt that the universe is in need of an explanation. Don’t we give up on rationality if we allow for universes to pop into existence from nothing?
I do think the "from nothing" part could be a problem. Whether there has to be an explanation for the universe, and whether we have to give up on rationality if there is none, I don't know.
An ‘infinite regress’ and an ‘uncaused cause’ are both concepts that are offered as an explanation for the existence of the universe. Based on previous discussions, you seem to prefer an infinite regress over an uncaused cause. Is that a fair assessment of your position?
I don't really have a preference. I find them about equally difficult to comprehend.daveS
September 29, 2016
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DS, first, the universe, U exists, in a sequence of states s1, s2 . . . sn, sn+1 etc. We may and do freely ask why, expecting to find a sensible answer. In particular, the observed cosmos credibly had a beginning and the cosmos is clearly highly contingent. These both point to the reasonableness of a cause, ontologically antecedent to and sustaining of such a universe. In this context, something -- a world -- from utter non-being is an obvious non starter, as were there utter nothing such would forever obtain. Nor, given fine tuning, is blind chance and/or mechanical necessity a plausible answer. This already makes design a serious candidate, indeed the most serious. Now, on infinite past attaining to the present, the same issues obtain as previous discussions indicate. These are so whether or no you may prefer otherwise. Specifically, we have stage-wise causally linked succession of states. Such a chain is inherently incapable of actually traversing and completing an endless span of states in stepwise succession. There is no good reason to hold that such has happened, and there is every good reason to infer that such has not happened, that there was in fact a finitely remote initial condition of the observed cosmos that is not explained on prior chain of succession. That is, there was a beginning and a cause, even through a speculation about a prior multiverse or quantum foam etc. Infinite regress is simply not a good explanation, though it is the only alternative to a beginning, which entails an ontologically prior cause. I simply note that if there were such a succession, at some pointw, it had to have been endlessly remote from the sequence since a useful beginning point, say 13.85 BYA, set as s0, then s1, . . . sn, now. That is, we see (with ellipses of endlessness indicated by FOUR dots): . . . . w+2, w+1, w, w-1, w-2 . . . . k, k-1, . . . s0, s1, s2 . . . sn + --> There is a finite, causally successive stepwise span from s0 to now, no problem. But to get to s0 from w we have to count down across a span that is endlessly extensive. We might as well say: w --> 0, w+1 -->1, etc, . . . . | s0 --> OMEGA, i.e. the order type of the natural numbers as spanned from w. Mathematically, i.e. logically on structure and quantity, we may say that the endlessness of succession can be assigned an order type omega, but that is utterly different from being able to actually stepwise span it and traverse it. No, we see where it would go, and say, okay that endless span has a quantity, omega. We have delivered a logical result on the set as a whole per its logical structure, we have not actually spanned it in causally connected finite stage successve steps. Whereas, by contrast we could say: s0 --> bang s1 --> inflationary period s2 --> first stars s3 --> forming "second generation" stars and associated structures such as galaxies, clouds with high metallicity, etc s4 --> Formation of sol in Milky Way, and associated planets . . . sn --> now (Where we could assign some k as finitely remote actual beginning; what we can warrant per logic of successive cumulative finite stage steps.) KF PS: The challenge of endless traverse can be seen by postulating two tapes punched at an even finite interval, say 0.1 inch, starting left and endlessly going right. One pink, P and the other blue B. Advance P by some arbitrarily large but finite k steps, such that k+1, k+2, . . . . are now in 1:1 match with B at 0, 1, 2 . . . . where both are still endless to the right. The import is, endlessness is definable on terms of such a k, k+1 etc having no effect on the continuation to the right and continued 1:1 match of P and B. As a direct implication, at any finite stage k, there is still an endless succession k+1, k+2 etc still to go, proposed finite stage stepwise spanning of endlessness is futile.kairosfocus
September 29, 2016
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DaveS @63, I don't understand why you doubt that the universe is in need of an explanation. Don't we give up on rationality if we allow for universes to pop into existence from nothing? An 'infinite regress' and an 'uncaused cause' are both concepts that are offered as an explanation for the existence of the universe. Based on previous discussions, you seem to prefer an infinite regress over an uncaused cause. Is that a fair assessment of your position?Origenes
September 29, 2016
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Origenes, A very brief response: Although I think the first cause argument is a reasonable one to make, it's not at all clear to me that the premises on which it rests are true. Specifically, that the universe itself is in need of an explanation and that an infinite regress is incoherent.daveS
September 29, 2016
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DaveS @61,
Well, I’m currently located inside a building, and while I would agree that given that it exists, it’s “necessary” in some sense that there was a designer, that designer was a person or persons, and these persons are generally regarded as contingent beings.
Strictly spoken you are correct of course. Surely, the designer of this building is him/herself in need of an explanation. When I said “the structure of the argument is exactly the same”, I meant to say that in a narrow context — if we only consider the designer and the building —, the logic is very similar. Every possible world must necessarily have a First Cause, every possible Château de Versailles must necessarily have a designer; otherwise these things don’t come into existence.
Are we talking about the same thing? From wikipedia: a logically necessary being is a being whose non-existence is a logical impossibility, and which therefore exists either timeless or eternally in all possible worlds.
Again, you are correct. Logic informs us about several exotic properties of the First Cause, and the same properties do not apply for the designer of any Château de Versailles.
Origenes: I take it that by “lots of physical evidence” you are referring to Château de Versailles. However, the amount of physical evidence has never been a problem for First Cause arguments—the entire universe can be offered as physical evidence.
Well, wrt designers, it’s “obvious” to me that the Château de Versailles was deliberately designed and built (by humans).
Or unknown alien(?) designers, as in the example (see #53) we are discussing.
The entire universe (aside from buildings etc)? That’s less obvious to me.
The (entire) universe is in need of an explanation — just like the displaced Château de Versailles. Assuming that an infinite regress is incoherent, there must necessarily be a First Cause.Origenes
September 29, 2016
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Origines, Thanks. And yes, I meant that on Earth, buildings are designed and manufactured, and reasoning by analogy, the same would likely be true on this other planet.
I suggest you err on this assessment. The structure of the argument is exactly the same. A logically necessary being is a being whose non-existence is a logical impossibility. Given the Château de Versailles, a designer is a necessary being. In the same sense that, given the universe, the First Cause is a necessary being.
Well, I'm currently located inside a building, and while I would agree that given that it exists, it's "necessary" in some sense that there was a designer, that designer was a person or persons, and these persons are generally regarded as contingent beings. Are we talking about the same thing? From wikipedia:
a logically necessary being is a being whose non-existence is a logical impossibility, and which therefore exists either timeless or eternally in all possible worlds.
I take it that by “lots of physical evidence” you are referring to Château de Versailles. However, the amount of physical evidence has never been a problem for First Cause arguments—the entire universe can be offered as physical evidence.
Well, wrt designers, it's "obvious" to me that the Château de Versailles was deliberately designed and built (by humans). The entire universe (aside from buildings etc)? That's less obvious to me.daveS
September 29, 2016
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DaveS @56,
If the amnesia is mild enough so that I recall what buildings are and how they come to be on Earth (they are manufactured by humans), then I would agree that the existence of a designer/manufacturer is necessary for their existence.
Thank you for your answer. To be clear, in my example (see #53) there is little reason to suppose that the scenario is situated on Earth. But, if I understand you correctly, then this is not your assumption.
I don’t consider this situation/argument to be especially abstract, since it involves no “necessary beings” in the sense HeKS and others are discussing, …
I suggest you err on this assessment. The structure of the argument is exactly the same. A logically necessary being is a being whose non-existence is a logical impossibility. Given the Château de Versailles, a designer is a necessary being. In the same sense that, given the universe, the First Cause is a necessary being.
we have lots of physical evidence, etc.
I take it that by “lots of physical evidence” you are referring to Château de Versailles. However, the amount of physical evidence has never been a problem for First Cause arguments—the entire universe can be offered as physical evidence.
I do think that if one of our space probes sends back pictures of an alien “city”, there’s a good chance we could identify it as designed or manufactured.
Let’s hope that common sense will indeed prevail.Origenes
September 29, 2016
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WJM, I don't have anything more to say about #54 presently, because I believe it is based partly on a false premise---that I am thinking of God as a mere "superhumanbeing". But I will ask, is the God you believe in a personal God? And if so, do others worship the same God as you?daveS
September 29, 2016
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WJM, A partial answer to #54:
It appears to me by your answers that your atheism is entirely framed by a certain conceptualization of a Christian god – you refer to the Bible, gospels, miraculous events, and as HeKS points out, an embodied, contingent being kind of entity as god.
It is true that I'm primarily interested in the Christian God or something very similar, but I don't think of Him as an embodied, contingent being. I understand that at least most Christians regard Him as a necessary being [Edit: I think, anyway. I'm assuming that here]. And yes, I'm not that keen to discuss entities such as a non-personal god, for example. And I strongly disagree that I'm focusing on a mere "superhumanbeing". Not at all. I have in mind a very mainstream, Christain-centric admittedly, conception of who God is.daveS
September 29, 2016
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HeKS,
You can have questions or doubts about necessary beings (though I think you have less doubt about them than you might think), but my ultimate point here is that if you want to deal with this subject honestly then you need to take the proposition of God’s existence on its own terms, in the sense that you have to try to think about the proposition as it is actually put forward by those who defend it, which is something that bears no resemblance to the proposed existence of some random contingent being in the world (I gave examples like Bigfoot, fairies and Loch Ness Monster).
I do agree that it's important to deal with the actual arguments put forth by theists on this matter. And I acknowledge that god (by most theists' accounts) is very much unlike Bigfoot, et al. But I think you can appreciate how one could be skeptical about arguments where terms such as "necessary being", "maximally great being", "great-making properties", and so on are thrown around, when it's not clear whether these terms actually refer to anything real. While they might be interesting to ponder, they raise a lot of questions as well. If I were a Christian, I think I would take the position reverse to yours: I would base my faith primarily on things like evidence from the bible, perhaps my own experience of miracles (overt or not), scientific evidence, and regard the Cosmological Argument, etc., as secondary.daveS
September 29, 2016
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Origenes (and others), First, I'll have to answer these various posts in somewhat random order, as I get time. Hopefully I can respond to them all today,
Suppose that you and 29 other people wake-up in a building, very much like Château de Versailles, situated on an otherwise barren deserted planet. The 30 of you are the only living beings on this planet. Let’s suppose further that all of you suffer from amnesia and have no idea how you got there and who you are. At some point a discussion ensues among the 30 members of the displaced group about the existence of the designer(s) of the building and its intricate features. Some argue that the existence of a designer is ‘necessary’ for the building to exist. Others are not convinced by this ‘abstract’ argument, demand empirical evidence and rightly point out that nowhere on the planet designers have been spotted. What would be your position?
If the amnesia is mild enough so that I recall what buildings are and how they come to be on Earth (they are manufactured by humans), then I would agree that the existence of a designer/manufacturer is necessary for their existence. If I somehow forgot completely what buildings are, I don't know. Perhaps I would still be able to make a design inference, but it might take longer. If I don't even understand the concept of "building", I might be too impaired to make a judgement. I don't consider this situation/argument to be especially abstract, since it involves no "necessary beings" in the sense HeKS and others are discussing, we have lots of physical evidence, etc. I do think that if one of our space probes sends back pictures of an alien "city", there's a good chance we could identify it as designed or manufactured.daveS
September 29, 2016
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as to: "This is why Dawkins, Sagan and Harris are considered lightweight atheistic philosophers" And let's not forget to include Krauss in that list:
Intelligent Design Critics: ‘Never Mind What You’re Saying. What I Say You’re Saying Is Stupid’ - April 3, 2016 Excerpt: Throughout much of the debate Krauss was committing what philosophers and debaters call the “strawman fallacy.” It amounts to erecting a false version of another person’s position — one that’s easy to knock down, like a “straw man” — and then knocking it down and declaring victory. It pretends to refute the other person’s position when really it doesn’t even address it, but something else instead. Krauss didn’t limit himself to intelligent design straw men. He ranged as far as presenting straw man versions of God, the Bible and Christian theology. And he didn’t just do it in response to Meyer: he dove right in to ridiculing strawman versions of ID and Christianity in the first few minutes of his opening presentation, which came first in the debate. It’s clear what Krauss thinks of God. It’s clear what he thinks about what he says Meyer and ID say. It’s not clear what he thinks about the actual theory of intelligent design, only that he seems not to want to think about it, at least not publicly since he is clearly intent on changing the subject in order to do battle with straw men instead. https://stream.org/intelligent-design-critics-what-i-say-youre-saying-stupid/ Scientists Should Tell Lawrence Krauss to Shut Up Already by Edward Feser - September 28th, 2015 Excerpt: From the point of view of the main arguments for God’s existence, it is a mistake to think that the place to look for evidence of God is within the domain investigated by science. Rather, the place to look is somewhere more fundamental—at what any possible science must itself presuppose. The Rules of the Game Think of it this way: you can’t find out why checkers boards exist by looking at the rules of checkers themselves, which concern only what goes on within the game. The rules tell you how each piece moves, how the game is won, and so forth. But why are the pieces governed by these rules, specifically, rather than others? Why do any checkers boards exist at all in the first place? No scrutiny of the rules can answer those questions. It is impossible to answer them, or indeed even to understand the questions, unless you take a vantage point from outside the game and its rules. Similarly, what science uncovers are, in effect, the “rules” that govern the “game” that is the natural world. Its domain of study is what is internal to the natural order of things. It presupposes that there is such an order, just as the rules of checkers presuppose that there are such things as checkers boards and game pieces. For that very reason, though, science has nothing to say about why there is any natural order or laws in the first place, any more than the rules of checkers tell you why there are any checkers boards or checkers rules in the first place. Thus, science cannot answer the question why there is any world at all, or any laws at all. To answer those questions, or even to understand them properly, you must take an intellectual vantage point from outside the world and its laws, and thus outside of science. You need to look to philosophical argument, which goes deeper than anything mere physics can uncover. http://www.thepublicdiscourse.com/2015/09/15760/ Is Lawrence Krauss a Physicist, or Just a Bad Philosopher? By John Horgan | November 20, 2015 Excerpt: That brings me to South African physicist George Ellis. When I interviewed Ellis last year, I asked him if Krauss’s book answers the question posed by its subtitle. Ellis responded: Certainly not. He is presenting untested speculative theories of how things came into existence out of a pre-existing complex of entities, including variational principles, quantum field theory, specific symmetry groups, a bubbling vacuum, all the components of the standard model of particle physics, and so on. He does not explain in what way these entities could have pre-existed the coming into being of the universe, why they should have existed at all, or why they should have had the form they did. And he gives no experimental or observational process whereby we could test these vivid speculations of the supposed universe-generation mechanism. How indeed can you test what existed before the universe existed? You can’t. Thus what he is presenting is not tested science. It’s a philosophical speculation, which he apparently believes is so compelling he does not have to give any specification of evidence that would confirm it is true. Well, you can’t get any evidence about what existed before space and time came into being. Above all he believes that these mathematically based speculations solve thousand year old philosophical conundrums, without seriously engaging those philosophical issues. The belief that all of reality can be fully comprehended in terms of physics and the equations of physics is a fantasy. As pointed out so well by Eddington in his Gifford lectures, they are partial and incomplete representations of physical, biological, psychological, and social reality. And above all Krauss does not address why the laws of physics exist, why they have the form they have, or in what kind of manifestation they existed before the universe existed (which he must believe if he believes they brought the universe into existence). Who or what dreamt up symmetry principles, Lagrangians, specific symmetry groups, gauge theories, and so on? He does not begin to answer these questions. It’s very ironic when he says philosophy is bunk and then himself engages in this kind of attempt at philosophy. http://blogs.scientificamerican.com/cross-check/is-lawrence-krauss-a-physicist-or-just-a-bad-philosopher/
bornagain77
September 29, 2016
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daveS, It appears to me by your answers that your atheism is entirely framed by a certain conceptualization of a Christian god - you refer to the Bible, gospels, miraculous events, and as HeKS points out, an embodied, contingent being kind of entity as god. (I'm not saying that is an accurate reflection of the Christian god, I'm saying that is a conception of that god a lot of people have). So, a lot of your ideas about "compelling evidence" for a god is based on that particular concept of god. Although the two concepts employ the same term - "god" - that concept and the one being argued largely by people here are two entirely different concepts. The kind of god you are an atheist in relation to is really not much more than a superhuman entity. You yourself admit that the "compelling evidence" you cite would not even necessarily indicate that the being providing such evidence would in fact be god. Indeed, given your conceptualization of god, I would also probably be an agnostic or a weak atheist. But, that is not at all what is being argued here, and until you can set aside that particular framing (at least for discussions here), you simply won't be able to understand what the arguments here are actually about. Your "atheism" is so off-base to what is being argued here that, to use Pauli's phrase, "it's not even wrong". It's inapplicable. We're not talking about afairyism or ayetiism or asuperhumanbeingism. IMO, you and others here are the most superficial (no disrespect intended) kinds of atheists in that you haven't really considered any but one very particular, narrowly-constructed concept of god, and you haven't (apparently) examined very thoroughly the broader logical ramifications of atheism. It seems to me that your "atheism" is more of a "Well, I don't see any compelling evidence for the Loch Ness Monster, so you can call me an alochnessmonsterist" kind of atheism. IOW, it's just one more proposed being that you have no reason to agree exists, because being an alochnessmonsterist doesn't commit your worldview to any further logical consequences as a result of your lack of belief that the loch ness monster exists. In other words, you think everything else in your worldview and how you understand your existence can stay the same whether or not you believe in god. That's true with regards to the kind of god you are conceptualizing; it's not true wrt the kind of god being argued here. The loch ness monster is not proposed as a necessary being, a fundamental ground for both morality and free will, the validity of mathematics and logic, the cause of the fine-tuning of the universe, the acausal root of cause and effect, etc., where the lack of such a fundamental entity has extreme, inescapable logical consequences for the very nature and meaning of our existence. Until you can understand, engage in and respond to those arguments, not only are we not in the same ballpark, we're not even playing the same game. This is why the big league atheist/materialist philosophers agree that without god there is no basis to believe we are rational, volitional creatures. This is why they call our consciousness, free will and sense of morality "illusionary" - because without the kind of god actually being argued here as the fundamental root of such things, those things can only be the projected, illusory experiential effects of interacting matter processing from one physical state to the next. And if that is true, it has very deep, very profound, very troubling implications for our very existence, which those big-league atheistic philosophers agree would be the case. This is why Dawkins, Sagan and Harris are considered lightweight atheistic philosophers - they, like you, talk about the same kind of god you talk about, as if things like invisible spaghetti monsters or dragons in the garage are conceptually comparable to the essence of classical theistic arguments.William J Murray
September 29, 2016
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DaveS, Suppose that you and 29 other people wake-up in a building, very much like Château de Versailles, situated on an otherwise barren deserted planet. The 30 of you are the only living beings on this planet. Let's suppose further that all of you suffer from amnesia and have no idea how you got there and who you are. At some point a discussion ensues among the 30 members of the displaced group about the existence of the designer(s) of the building and its intricate features. Some argue that the existence of a designer is ‘necessary’ for the building to exist. Others are not convinced by this ‘abstract’ argument, demand empirical evidence and rightly point out that nowhere on the planet designers have been spotted. What would be your position?Origenes
September 29, 2016
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