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What are the First Rules of Right Reason? Are They Negotiable? Do They Matter?

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About two weeks ago, I read a scientific report that challenged my perceptions about the relationship between philosophy and science. So much so, that it forced me to doubt some of my erstwhile convictions about the value of logic and prompted me to revise major elements of my global world view. As it turns out, an empirically-based study indicated, within a 1% margin of error, that there are more people in the city of Los Angeles than in the entire state of California. I would never have accepted this counter-intuitive claim had there been no evidence to support it.

At this point, my readers might wonder how I could be so pathologically gullible as to accept such an absurd proposition. Or, more likely, they will recognize my scenario as a playful exercise in misdirection that conveys an important point: No amount of evidence or appeal to the authority of science could ever invalidate a self-evident truth. The city of Los Angeles simply cannot have more people than the entire state of California. Any such claim would violate one of the first principles of right reason: A finite whole can never be less than any one of its parts. Drawing on that same principle, I can be equally certain that a man’s head cannot displace more water than his entire body or that our sun cannot weigh more than the solar system of which it is a part.

On reflection, we should be able to appreciate the significance of these examples and place them in the context of a broader principle: Evidence does not inform the rules of right reason; the rules of right reason inform evidence. That is because self-evident truths, the starting point from which all rational inquiry begins, provide the means by which all other truth claims, scientific or otherwise, must be evaluated. Accordingly, we don’t reason our way TO these principles; we reason our way FROM them. Evidence, at least of the scientific variety, cannot invalidate or pass judgment on them because evidence is the thing being validated and judged.

Among reason’s most authoritative judges, the Law of Identity, the Law of Non-Contradiction, and the Law of the Excluded middle reign supreme. Ontologically, a thing cannot be what it is and also be something else. Logically and psychologically, a proposition cannot be true and false at the same time and in the same sense. The thinking process begins with the understanding of what is and what cannot be. Without this constraint, that is, without the ability to rule things out, reasoned analysis and meaningful dialogue are impossible. One can say, “If A, then B”, only if everything except B is understood to be an impossible consequence of A.

Postmodernist skeptics often try to argue that these points apply only to our mental framework and the ways that we think about things. The careful reader will notice, though, that the aforementioned laws are both objectively and subjectively true. They apply to both the world as it is (ontology) and the world as we perceive it (epistemology). That is why we can differentiate between a sound argument, which is both internally consistent and consistent with truths found in the real world, and a valid argument, which may only meet the first condition. If one begins with a true premise about the real world and reasons perfectly, he will arrive at a true conclusion about the real world; if one begins with a false premise and reasons perfectly, he will arrive at a false conclusion. In terms of logic and causation, then, our mental models correspond with real world facts. There is no divide between them however passionately the skeptics might wish it to be so.

Among reason’s most pragmatic judges, the Law of Causality and the Principle of Sufficient Reason define the rational standards for all philosophical and scientific investigations. Everything must have a reason or cause for its existence and an explanation for why it undergoes change. Let’s consider a simple example of the former: Person A enters a room with person B and says, “Look, there is a red ball sitting on the table. I wonder how it got there.” Person B, amazed at the question, asks, “What do you mean, ‘how did it get there?’ Obviously, someone put it there.” This is, of course, the correct response. The red ball is, after all, contingent and finite; someone had to bring it into existence and put it in place. Now, let’s blow the ball up to the size of a house. Has the argument changed or lost any of its force? No. The only thing that has changed is the size of the ball. Now, blow the ball up to the size of the United States—now to the size of our Solar system—now to the size of the universe. Has the argument changed? No. Is the ball any less finite or less dependent on a cause? No. Only its size is different. Obviously, someone put it there.

Again, the careful reader will notice that the Law of Causality applies not only to those things that come into being but also those things that undergo change. In the latter context, the principle can be further simplified: A cause cannot give what it does not have to give. There is no reason, for example, to conduct an empirical investigation to negate or affirm the hypothesis that a gold bar could come from a gold sliver, or that a sand castle could come from a single grain. In either case, there is nothing in the cause that could produce the effect. Additional raw materials would have to be gathered by an outside agent and fashioned into a new product. No amount of evidence could override these metaphysical truths.

It often escapes the notice of professional cynics that reason’s rules also establish the rigorous standards for scientific methodology even before evidence enters the picture. Among the many questions which must be answered are the following: What is the difference between causation and correlation? When is it appropriate to use ordinal, nominal, or interval measurements? What is the most dependable way to isolate variables? Can variables be totally isolated at all? When should we apply mathematical principles? When should we apply statistical principles? What is science? What counts as evidence? What is an experiment? What is a theory? What constitutes a proof? What is the difference between probability, virtual certainty, and absolute certainty? In what ways does a philosophical investigation differ from a scientific investigation? Do they overlap? We cannot interpret evidence in a rational way until we answer these and many other questions.

Objective rational standards are, for want of a better term, epistemological safeguards. Under their jurisdiction, all parties must check their political motives and personal agendas at the door: Religious believers will not presume to use the book of Genesis as a scientific textbook, and secular doubters will not presume to disallow a “Divine foot in the door.” The role of scientists, after all, is to sit at the feet of nature and allow her to reveal her secrets. In that context, there is always an ethical component involved in their research: Either they will follow the evidence according to reason’s rules, or they will lead the evidence according to their own biases and prejudices. There is no middle ground for interpretation. One is either drawing information out of the data or injecting ideology into the data.

In this respect, the micro world is subject to the same metaphysical principles as the macro world. Quantum theorists, therefore, cannot reasonably challenge first principles on the grounds that quantum particles behave in strange and surprising ways. It was, after all, those same principles that brought attention to the strange and surprising behavior in the first place. In the absence of reason’s rules, we could not have known the difference between what is odd and what is normal or apprehend the counter-intuitive nature of quantum activity. Any scientist who presumes to negotiate away reason’s rules is, in effect, trying to put out of business the same principles that put him in business.

Meanwhile, the big questions remained unanswered. If one thing can come into existence without a cause, why cannot anything else do the same? Why not everything? Within such a “liberated” framework, how can the scientist know which events are caused and which ones are not? In any case, it appears that the special pleading of the quantum theorists has ended. At first, we were told that their claim on behalf of causeless events was a one-time deal. If, just this once, we would exempt their specialty from rational standards, there would be no more breaches—that is, until Lawrence Krauss exclaimed that the entire universe popped into existence without a cause. So much for special limits. But the development was entirely predictable. Irrationality knows no limits. That is why it is irrational.

That raises the prior question about why anyone in any specialty would question reason’s rules. In large part, the answer lies with members of the educational elite and their desire to take reason’s place as the final arbiter of right thinking. If reason has no rules, then power does the ruling. In order to facilitate that strategy, elitists promote the anti-intellectual doctrine that only empirical knowledge is real knowledge. If a concept or idea cannot be verified thought scientific means, then it doesn’t qualify as legitimate knowledge. Obviously, that philosophy refutes itself since it cannot pass its own test. It cannot be proven to be valid through empirical methods.

Wouldn’t it be easier to dispense with all this nonsense and simply acknowledge self-evident truths for what they are? What could be more reasonable than affirming with confidence that which we already know? It isn’t just the integrity of science that is at stake. Our ability to engage in any kind of rational discourse depends on it. Every long journey begins with a single step. Surely, we can all agree that there could never be more people in the city of Los Angeles than in the state of California without adding the words, —“yes, but”….” Or can we?

Comments
Stephen #93
Remember, the denial of causality entails the denial of all possible causes (necessary, sufficient, material, formal, final, efficient—-all possible causes are dismissed. I would characterize this as a poof of the gaps argument. “I don’t know what caused it, so I will assume that it just went poof.” In my judgment, this is not an intellectually responsible position.
The word "denial" implies a rejection of the possibility that an event is caused. I don't think that is what is going on. The scientists are just hypothesising that there is no cause. I don't see why this is intellectually irresponsible. If the science continues under this assumption what is the problem?Mark Frank
July 27, 2013
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Mung #97
All swans are white (true)
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Black_SwanMark Frank
July 26, 2013
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man oh man. really? All planets are habitable. Therefore Earth is habitable. Begs the question of whether all planets are habitable. Wikipedia:
Begging the question (Latin petitio principii, "assuming the initial point") is a type of informal fallacy in which an implicit premise basing a conclusion on an assumption that is as much in need of proof or demonstration as the conclusion itself.
Begging the question is one of the classic informal fallacies in Aristotle's Prior Analytics. Some modern authors consider begging the question to be a species of circulus in probando (Latin, "circle in proving") or circular reasoning. Were it not begging the question, the missing premise would render the argument viciously circular
Mung
July 26, 2013
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Mark Frank:
There is a distinct difference between coming into existence at our scale and coming into existence at the scale of elementary particles.
Why? Your body is not composed of elementary particles?Mung
July 26, 2013
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Mark Frank:
Stephen graciously accepted he was wrong and that it is possible to reason correctly from a false premise to a true conclusion. Are you disputing this?
I'm saying you're a complete and utter hypocrite to appeal to graciousness after the behavior you engaged in with gpuccio.Mung
July 26, 2013
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Mark Frank:
All swans are white (false) Therefore the swans in our village are white (true)
All swans are white (true) If it ain't white it ain't a swan (true). Therefore the swans in our village are white (true).Mung
July 26, 2013
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Mark Frank:
All planets are habitable (false) Therefore Earth is habitable (true)
All planets are habitable (true). Earth is a planet (true). It follows that Earth is habitable as well.Mung
July 26, 2013
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Mark Frank:
I am confused. Can you give me an example of where I have given a circular argument.
Do you deny you accused gpuccio of making a circular argument with respect to his definition of dFSCI? Can you give an example of where gpuccio made a circular argument with regard to dFSCI?Mung
July 26, 2013
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Thanks for these thoughtful responses, Stephen! I'm a bit intermittent at the moment (I'm running lots of rather tedious bits of number-cruncing, the length of a short post, but not of a long one!) but I'll try to get back to this maybe on Sunday if not before. Cheers LizzieElizabeth B Liddle
July 26, 2013
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Elizabeth:
Let me have another shot at explaining how I see this (again, please bear in mind that this is NOT an argument against God, although it IS an argument against a certain argument for God).
OK. Fire away.
When we say that A causes B, we are making an implicit assumption about time – a thing can only “exist” at all in the classical sense if there is time over which it can persist. (This seems the obvious rebuttal btw to the atheist challenge “but what caused God?” – if God created time, then God “preceded” time, and therefore causality itself).
Actually, causation can be in play even when time is not a factor. A could uphold B for all eternity even if time didn’t exist. Under those circumstances, B would be dependent and contingent on [an effect of] A. A can be logically prior to B without being chronologically prior to B. That is why God can create and be logically prior to time/space/energy without being prior in time. Strictly speaking, we cannot say that God created the universe “before” time existed because there was no “before.” On the other hand, God did bring the universe along with its laws and the time/space/energy component. Also, God is sustaining the universe, which is another kind of cause that is distinct from the act of bringing the universe into existence.
And as most things are rearrangements of other things, it makes sense to say that their appearance ex nihilo, as it were, is due to some event that caused that rearrangement, whether it is the rearrangement of atomic hydrogen and oxygen into water molecules, or the rearrangement of foodstuff into organisms.
That seems to follow.
Scientifically, if we notice that whenever we observe A we tend also to observe B, we can hypothesise that A causes B, or that B causes A, or that some other variable, e.g. C, causes both. In other words, correlation implies causation, but it doesn’t tell us the direction.
Well, as I am sure you know, a correlative relationship between A and B does not necessarily imply a causative relationship between A and B. Something else may be causing both A and B.
In order to ascertain the direction we have to manipulate one of the variables experimentally. So if we can show that, all other things being equal, B happens when A happens but not when A does not happen, we can infer that A is a necessary (but not that it is a sufficient) cause of B.
Yes. One good way to identify a cause is to conduct an experiment and isolate variables.
And in the macroscopic world this works pretty well. However, when it comes to the subatomic world, it doesn’t.
At the moment, that seems to be the case. Still, our inability to identify discrete causes does not mean that those causes are not present. On the contrary, the causal conditions are present. A quantum vacuum is not nothing.
If we take two atoms of an unstable isotope, we simply cannot predict which one will decay first. There is no variable that correlates with time-to-decay. We simply have two identical atoms, persisting over time unchanged, and then one of them changes. In other words, once you are down to the level of fields, rather than “things”, the world seems to consist of “pure” probability distributions, in which some events are more likely than others, but where there is no explanation for why one of two equiprobable events did in fact occur.
Yes, however, unpredictability does not imply acausality.
So that’s why I say that the assumption that all events have causes is not a safe assumption.
It was the assumption of causation that led to all the counter-intuitive observations that you just made. If you withdraw the assumption of causation, then you must also withdraw your interpretation of those observations that was based on that assumption. Indeed, the theory of quantum mechanics was discovered by and is based on the unquestioned fact of causality. The misguided denial of causality came later in the process from philosophically naïve scientists who forgot where they came from. Remember, the denial of causality entails the denial of all possible causes (necessary, sufficient, material, formal, final, efficient----all possible causes are dismissed. I would characterize this as a poof of the gaps argument. “I don’t know what caused it, so I will assume that it just went poof.” In my judgment, this is not an intellectually responsible position.StephenB
July 26, 2013
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Elizabeth @35 You make several points, so my post will be more enumerative than thematic: On the question of causation as a law, we are not saying that everything that exists must be caused. If that was the case, then God would have had to be caused. That is why we say that everything that begins to exist must have a cause. God did not begin to exist. As I discussed with Mark, the logical link between LNC and Loc is different from the argument that the LoC is true. The point is that denying the latter violates former and leads to a contradiction. I am not clear on why you deny that affirmation. Again, there is also another way of approaching it. A thing either brings itself into existence or is brought into existence by another. Those are our only two choices. If we assume the former, we find that a thing would have had to exist before it existed in order to bring itself into existence, which is ridiculous. Therefore, we take the second option as the only logical alternative. We are not, as you suggested, presupposing the second option. On the question of why you think some things could be caused while others are not, I did study your answer. If I understand correctly, you are saying that [a] since quantum particles are exceedingly small and may come into existence in a decidedly different way than other things come into existence, [b] it follows that the uniqueness of that process renders it exempt from the law of causation. Your ultimate explanation appears to be that some things can, at the lowest level of existence, rearrange themselves. I hope that I have not oversimplified, but that seems to be the bottom line argument. I would agree that quantum particles may come into existence in a different way than other things, though I have no way of knowing. When you think about it, though, there are many different ways of coming into existence, and many different ways of causing it. A sand castle comes to be in a far different way than a baby. A universe would likely come to be in a different fashion than a thunderstorm. Nevertheless, all these things are caused, albeit in different ways. I suspect that quantum events come to be in a fashion analogous to that of a thunderstorm, though I am guessing of course. However, the example seems appropriate since, in both cases, we are referring to causal conditions as opposed to discrete causal factors that can easily be identified. To speak of atmospheric conditions may seem a little vague, just as it may seem a little vague to speak of causal conditions present in a quantum vacuum, but it is still true that these causal conditions are causes. In their absence, there will be no coming into existence. On the question of whether things in nature can rearrange themselves, I think a more fundamental question is in play. Can anything ever rearrange itself without being programmed in some way to do so? I would say no. That brings us back to the Law of Causality. On the matter of whether we are extrapolating beyond our range of data or importing assumptions about the universality of causation from the macro world to the micro world, I can only say that the appeal to a special exception for the quantum world seems more like special pleading to me. I would add that their "just this once" appeal didn't last very long. Soon after Victor Stenger claimed that quantum events are uncaused, Lawrence Krauss claimed that the entire universe was uncaused. So much for special pleading.StephenB
July 26, 2013
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Lizzie You make a very good point. There is a distinct difference between coming into existence at our scale and coming into existence at the scale of elementary particles. At our scale "Coming into existence" is not even a clear cut concept. The examples of horses and people rather hides this because they are animals and presumably a theist believes there is more to them than the elements that make them up - at least for the person. But if you think about a river or a mountain then there is no precise moment when it comes into existence or even a very clear definition of where "it" ends and the rest of the world begins.Mark Frank
July 26, 2013
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Stephen:
If a thing exists in and of itself, it means that it is its own explanation, that it is dependent or contingent on nothing. In any case, what you have not explained is why some things need a cause and other things do not.
Let me have another shot at explaining how I see this (again, please bear in mind that this is NOT an argument against God, although it IS an argument against a certain argument for God). When we say that A causes B, we are making an implicit assumption about time - a thing can only "exist" at all in the classical sense if there is time over which it can persist. (This seems the obvious rebuttal btw to the atheist challenge "but what caused God?" - if God created time, then God "preceded" time, and therefore causality itself). So when we say A caused B we implicitly envisage A and B as events. Two objects doing nothing won't affect each other, by definition. And as most things are rearrangements of other things, it makes sense to say that their appearance ex nihilo, as it were, is due to some event that caused that rearrangement, whether it is the rearrangement of atomic hydrogen and oxygen into water molecules, or the rearrangement of foodstuff into organisms. Scientifically, if we notice that whenever we observe A we tend also to observe B, we can hypothesise that A causes B, or that B causes A, or that some other variable, e.g. C, causes both. In other words, correlation implies causation, but it doesn't tell us the direction. In order to ascertain the direction we have to manipulate one of the variables experimentally. So if we can show that, all other things being equal, B happens when A happens but not when A does not happen, we can infer that A is a necessary (but not that it is a sufficient) cause of B. And in the macroscopic world this works pretty well. However, when it comes to the subatomic world, it doesn't. If we take two atoms of an unstable isotope, we simply cannot predict which one will decay first. There is no variable that correlates with time-to-decay. We simply have two identical atoms, persisting over time unchanged, and then one of them changes. In other words, once you are down to the level of fields, rather than "things", the world seems to consist of "pure" probability distributions, in which some events are more likely than others, but where there is no explanation for why one of two equiprobable events did in fact occur. So that's why I say that the assumption that all events have causes is not a safe assumption. It may be that only events that are statistically highly predictable (i.e. water if you light a match near a hydrogen vent in an oxygenated environment) can be explained in terms of causes, just as we can explain readily why, if you toss 500 coins, you will not get anything near to 500 heads, even though if you toss 10, you will quite often get 10 heads. A horse is astronomically more probable than not-a-horse, given the sequence of events that preceded the horse, each event of which was itself astronomically more probable than not-that-event, given those preceding events and so ad not-quite-infinitum, but until you get to the quantum probability fields themselves, which produce highly predictable macro effects in aggregate, but are no more predictable than a coin-toss singly.Elizabeth B Liddle
July 26, 2013
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Hi, Stephen - there's no hurry (I am busy too!) but were you going to respond to my post at 35? Or was your response subsumed into a response from Mark?Elizabeth B Liddle
July 26, 2013
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Stephen
SB: A contingent being is, by definition, something that does not exist in and of itself and, THEREFORE, depends for its existence upon some other being. Contingency cannot be separated from dependency. …….. the LNC and LoC are inextricably tied together because contingency is inseparable from dependency, according to any rational definitions of those two words. Thus, when you deny the LoC you are, by implication, denying LNC. If you don’t want to discuss that argument, no problem. However, you have presented no argument against it, except to say that you don’t think contingency implies dependency, which it clearly does.
If you look up the meaning of contingent here you will see there are many definitions. You appear to be adopting definition 1:
dependent for existence, occurrence, character, etc., on something not yet certain; conditional
That’s fine – but don’t confuse it with definition 4:
neither logically necessary nor logically impossible, so that its truth or falsity can be established only by sensory observation.
My point is that logically something can be contingent in sense 4 without being contingent in sense 1.  You may disagree but you need to show why.
If a thing exists in and of itself, it means that it is its own explanation, that it is dependent or contingent on nothing.
This seems to imply that everything needs an explanation so that if there is no other explanation it has to explain itself. I am arguing that there are things that have no explanation.
I assume, for example, that you think a child’s existence is contingent and dependent on the existence of its parents. But do you think that it is a logical requirement or would you appeal to your standing argument such that we have no evidence that children can pop into existence without a cause, but there is no reason in principle to think that it couldn’t happen. Do you want to stay with that argument?
I don’t think it is a logical requirement. It is a requirement of the laws of biology and quite possibly of physics as well. Those laws are based on observation.
How do you know that you found causes for these things? All you know is that one thing followed another.
As I said, to answer this requires an essay on the nature of causality.  The fact is that we do establish that some things have causes and on other occasions we fail to do so. Would you disagree with that? It would be nice not to have to get into a lengthy discussion as to what causality is and how we establish it.
So, it is not essential for the science of fetology or embryology to assume that babies must be brought into existence by their parents?
Surely this is observed not assumed? Although it is such a common and well-established observation we hardly doubt it. But anyhow many sciences find it an extremely useful approach to assume every event has a cause (even if they can’t always discover it). Quantum mechanics has dispensed with that assumption and proceeds just fine. Mark Frank
July 26, 2013
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As a footnote to my comments @79, I realize that some might argue that a child can be produced through artificial means and not through the normal reproductive channels. However, that would beg the question of causality. The point is that some cause, artificial or natural, is indicated and that the child did not simply appear from out of nowwhere.StephenB
July 25, 2013
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Mung #82 There is some dispute as to whether a Manx cat has a shortened tail or no tail at all. However, it is not important. I provided some other examples of correct reasoning from a false premise to a true conclusion in #60: All cars are right-hand drive (false) Therefore, my car is right-hand drive (true) All swans are white (false) Therefore the swans in our village are white (true) All planets are habitable (false) Therefore Earth is habitable (true) Stephen graciously accepted he was wrong and that it is possible to reason correctly from a false premise to a true conclusion. Are you disputing this?Mark Frank
July 25, 2013
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#84 Mung
Now if the conclusion merely restates the premise, then you have a circular argument, which is a logical fallacy. I find it immensely humorous that Mark Frank, after so many times and in so many ways accusing gpuccio of just this sort of faulty reasoning wrt dFSCI, so readily engages in it himself and then attempts to defend it.
I am confused. Can you give me an example of where I have given a circular argument. ThanksMark Frank
July 25, 2013
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So let's let Wikipedia be our guide:
A premise is a statement that an argument claims will induce or justify a conclusion. In other words: a premise is an assumption that something is true.
Now if the conclusion merely restates the premise, then you have a circular argument, which is a logical fallacy. I find it immensely humorous that Mark Frank, after so many times and in so many ways accusing gpuccio of just this sort of faulty reasoning wrt dFSCI, so readily engages in it himself and then attempts to defend it. Perhaps his criticism of gpuccio were unjustified all along. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Begging_the_questionMung
July 25, 2013
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kf:
And, uncertainty is just that, it is saying that there is a limit to the precision with which we can evaluate entangled quantities such as energy and time or position and momentum. This, because, in simple terms the attempt to ascertain the one disturbs the other. That does not have anything to do with either distinction or cause as such.
For those who are interested, Dr. Stanley L. Jaki is always a good read on what can be reasonably inferred from the so-called uncertainty principle.Mung
July 25, 2013
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Mark Frank:
Have you never heard of a Manx cat?
Your point?
The Manx cat, in earlier times often spelled Manks, is a breed of domestic cat originating on the Isle of Man in the British Isles, with a naturally occurring mutation that shortens the tail.
How does one shorten something that does not exist?Mung
July 25, 2013
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SB: Neil (and you) are wrong about that point. The term wasn’t being used equivocally. It doesn’t matter if it “can” be used equivocally. The number of people in the city of Los Angeles cannot exceed the number of people in the state of California. There is nothing ambiguous about that formulation. The number of people is that which is being measured, the city of Los Angeles is the part, and the state of California is the whole. It is a legitimate whole/part relationship. Other cities and states or areas called by that name are irrelevant.
You are right. I was referring to your other statement about the debt of "Los Angeles" being greater than "the state of Califoria." It depends on how "state" is being use.CentralScrutinizer
July 25, 2013
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Mr. Frank, I'm stuck on this claim of yours that
"particles coming into being" (without a cause)
Now Mr. Frank, I'm assuming you mean virtual particles coming into and out of being without a cause. If so, let's look at virtual particles. Michael Strauss, PhD particle physics, in the following short clip, relates how the top quark, which is necessary for all atoms to exist, is in actuality a virtual particle:
Virtual Particles, Anthropic Principle and Special Relativity – Michael Strauss PhD. Particle Physics – video http://www.metacafe.com/watch/4554674
But Mr. Frank you hold that the reason why these virtual particles, the top quarks which are necessary for all atoms to exists in the universe, come into and out of being is for no reason at all. I would definitely call that being a science stopper Mr. Frank! But it gets worse for you Mr. Frank. There are also virtual photons which you hold also come into and out of being for no reason at all:
Researchers create light from ‘almost nothing’ – June 2011 Excerpt: A group of physicists,, have succeeded in proving what was until now, just theory; and that is, that visible photons could be produced from the virtual particles that have been thought to exist in a quantum vacuum. http://www.physorg.com/news/2011-06-researchers-create-light-from-almost.html
Where this problem becomes acute for you Mr. Frank is that it even the ‘exotic’ virtual photons, which fleetingly pop into and out of existence, are tied to the anthropic principle through the 1 in 10^120 cosmological constant for dark energy:
ELECTROMAGNETIC DARK ENERGY Abstract: We introduce a new model for dark energy in the Universe in which a small cosmological constant is generated by ordinary electromagnetic vacuum energy. The corresponding virtual photons exist at all frequencies but switch from a gravitationally active phase at low frequencies to a gravitationally inactive phase at higher frequencies via a Ginzburg–Landau type of phase transition. Only virtual photons in the gravitationally active state contribute to the cosmological constant. A small vacuum energy density, consistent with astronomical observations, is naturally generated in this model. We propose possible laboratory tests for such a scenario based on phase synchronization in superconductors. http://www.worldscinet.com/ijmpd/17/1701/S0218271808011870.html
It is also interesting to point out just how powerful this vacuum energy of virtual photons is:
Vacuum energy: Excerpt: Vacuum energy is an underlying background energy that exists in space even when the space is devoid of matter (free space). (Vacuum energy has a postulated) value of 10^113 Joules per cubic meter. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vacuum_energy and: (10^113 joules) per (cubic meter) = 10 ^113 pascals (Pa) and: 10^113 Pa approx = 4.6×10^113 Pa = 6.7×10^109 psi; Of note: The Planck pressure (4.63×10^108 bar), not reached except shortly after the Big Bang or in a black hole. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Orders_of_magnitude_%28pressure%29 Related noted: How the Power of Intention Alters Matter – Dr. William A. Tiller Excerpt: “Most people think that the matter is empty, but for internal self consistency of quantum mechanics and relativity theory, there is required to be the equivalent of 10 to 94 grams of mass energy, each gram being E=MC2 kind of energy. Now, that’s a huge number, but what does it mean practically? Practically, if I can assume that the universe is flat, and more and more astronomical data is showing that it’s pretty darn flat, if I can assume that, then if I take the volume or take the vacuum within a single hydrogen atom, that’s about 10 to the minus 23 cubic centimeters. If I take that amount of vacuum and I take the latent energy in that, there is a trillion times more energy there than in all of the mass of all of the stars and all of the planets out to 20 billion light-years. That’s big, that’s big. And if consciousness allows you to control even a small fraction of that, creating a big bang is no problem.” – Dr. William Tiller – has been a professor at Stanford U. in the Department of materials science & Engineering http://www.beyondtheordinary.net/williamtiller.shtml
Yet, according to you Mr. Frank, these virtual photons which are tied to the 1 in 10^120 expansion rate of the universe through Dark Energy, and which insure internal self consistency between quantum mechanics and relativity theory, just so happen to come into and out of being for no particular reason at all? Not a parsimonious position to put it mildly Mr. Frank! But Hey Mr. Frank let's see if we can this little problem even worse for you shall we? It is now found that Dark Energy is a 'true cosmological constant. First a little background,,,
Hugh Ross PhD. - Scientific Evidence For Cosmological Constant (Dark Energy - 1 in 10^120 Expansion Of The Universe) http://www.metacafe.com/watch/4347218/
Here are the verses in the Bible Dr. Ross listed, which were written well over 2000 years before the discovery of the finely tuned expansion of the universe by 'Dark Energy', that speak of God 'Stretching out the Heavens'; Job 9:8; Isaiah 40:22; Isaiah 44:24; Isaiah 48:13; Zechariah 12:1; Psalm 104:2; Isaiah 42:5; Isaiah 45:12; Isaiah 51:13; Jeremiah 51:15; Jeremiah 10:12. The following verse is my favorite out of the group of verses:
Job 9:8 He alone stretches out the heavens and treads on the waves of the sea.
Here is the paper from the atheistic astrophysicists, that Dr. Ross referenced in the preceding video, that speaks of the ‘disturbing implications’ of the finely tuned expanding universe (1 in 10^120 cosmological constant):
Disturbing Implications of a Cosmological Constant - Dyson, Kleban, Susskind (at least two are self proclaimed atheists) - 2002 Excerpt: "Arranging the universe as we think it is arranged would have required a miracle.,,," "A external agent [external to time and space] intervened in cosmic history for reasons of its own.,,," Page 21 "The only reasonable conclusion is that we don't live in a universe with a true cosmological constant". http://arxiv.org/pdf/hep-th/0208013.pdf
Mr. Frank, why didn't those atheists, as you hold, just say that the Dark Energy effect could have no cause as to its effect instead of getting everybody worked up over a 'external agent' performing a 'miracle' for reasons of His own?,,, Moreover, all alternative theories that atheists have put forth trying to explain away the fine tuning of Dark energy have now been found to come up short:
Dark energy alternatives to Einstein are running out of room – January 9, 2013 Excerpt: Last month, a group of European astronomers, using a massive radio telescope in Germany, made the most accurate measurement of the proton-to-electron mass ratio ever accomplished and found that there has been no change in the ratio to one part in 10 million at a time when the universe was about half its current age, around 7 billion years ago. When Thompson put this new measurement into his calculations, he found that it excluded almost all of the dark energy models using the commonly expected values or parameters. If the parameter space or range of values is equated to a football field, then almost the whole field is out of bounds except for a single 2-inch by 2-inch patch at one corner of the field. In fact, most of the allowed values are not even on the field. “In effect, the dark energy theories have been playing on the wrong field,” Thompson said. “The 2-inch square does contain the area that corresponds to no change in the fundamental constants, (a 'true cosmological constant'), and that is exactly where Einstein stands.” http://phys.org/news/2013-01-dark-energy-alternatives-einstein-room.html
Thus, atheistic astrophysicists are at a complete loss (once again) to explain why the universe expands in such a finely tuned way, whereas Theists are vindicated (once again) in their belief that God 'alone stretches out the heavens'!bornagain77
July 25, 2013
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Mark:
Stephen – to avoid the discussion becoming bloated I have selected key sentences from your most recent comment. If you feel that I have omitted something significant feel free to reinsert it.
OK SB: A contingent being is, by definition, something that does not exist in and of itself and, THEREFORE, depends for its existence upon some other being. Contingency cannot be separated from dependency.
As I said I don’t want to get into a dispute over the meaning of “contingent”. You are welcome to define “contingent” that way. I am saying is that something may exist without depending on some other being e.g. certain kinds of quantum particle. Whether you want to call such an object contingent is not important.
You are confusing the argument for the law of causality with the argument that the law of causality is tied to the law of non-contradiction. When I present the second argument to you, you respond by saying that you disagree with the first argument, which is related but not identical. With respect to the second argument, Geisler's point (and my point) is that the LNC and LoC are inextricably tied together because contingency is inseparable from dependency, according to any rational definitions of those two words. Thus, when you deny the LoC you are, by implication, denying LNC. If you don't want to discuss that argument, no problem. However, you have presented no argument against it, except to say that you don't think contingency implies dependency, which it clearly does.
All I am saying that some things can exist without a cause (I don’t understand the phrase “exist in and of themselves”).
If a thing exists in and of itself, it means that it is its own explanation, that it is dependent or contingent on nothing. In any case, what you have not explained is why some things need a cause and other things do not. I assume, for example, that you think a child's existence is contingent and dependent on the existence of its parents. But do you think that it is a logical requirement or would you appeal to your standing argument such that we have no evidence that children can pop into existence without a cause, but there is no reason in principle to think that it couldn't happen. Do you want to stay with that argument? You have already argued that a horse could, in principle, spontaneously pop into your living room, which means that the horse in question wouldn't need to be born of parents. Is that your argument for humans as well. Or, if you think that babies, unlike horses, absolutely require causes, then you are saying that at least one thing must, no matter what, require a cause, which undermines you thesis that anything, in principle, can occur without a cause. So would you say that although we have no experience of babies appearing without being born, it could happen, or would you say, categorically, that a baby simply cannot come into existence without its parents and without being born.
To answer this properly requires an essay on causality. Let me just say that on many (most?) occasions we find causes for events but on other occasions we fail to find a cause.
How do you know that you found causes for these things? All you know is that one thing followed another.
The point I want to stress is that quantum science continues quite successfully with the working assumption there are uncaused events including particles coming into being. Therefore the assumption that every that comes into being must have a cause is not essential for science."
So, it is not essential for the science of fetology or embryology to assume that babies must be brought into existence by their parents?StephenB
July 25, 2013
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Mark Frank claims that "The point I want to stress is that quantum science continues quite successfully with the working assumption there are uncaused events including particles coming into being. Therefore the assumption that every that comes into being must have a cause is not essential for science." So you are saying that it is OK to have an effect without a cause? Okie Dokie, let's try this out. I hear a knock on the door but I don't answer the door because the knock was not caused, it just happened. ,,, Hmmm, Something tells me you are purposely being misleading again Mr. Frank!bornagain77
July 25, 2013
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Mark @34: A proof is that quantum physicists work on this assumption...
Can you elaborate?CentralScrutinizer
July 25, 2013
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Central Scrutinzer:
Neil is essentially right. Here’s an example:
We settled that issue a long time ago. A single false premise can, indeed, lead to a true conclusion.
Again, I would have to agree with Neil, because “state” can be used equivocally.
Neil (and you) are wrong about that point. The term wasn't being used equivocally. It doesn't matter if it "can" be used equivocally. The number of people in the city of Los Angeles cannot exceed the number of people in the state of California. There is nothing ambiguous about that formulation. The number of people is that which is being measured, the city of Los Angeles is the part, and the state of California is the whole. It is a legitimate whole/part relationship. Other cities and states or areas called by that name are irrelevant.StephenB
July 25, 2013
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EL #21: So why must we assume that they need to be “brought into existence” by anything at all? Could “the capacity to exist” not be one of their intrinsic properties? At any rate, why is this not at least as defensible a premise as “all things must be brought into existence by something”?
Indeed. And this is the place where logic/reason hits the brick wall. "God" or the "multiverse generator" must necessarily transcend ontological causation of "itself." IMO, it's the mystery. (Besides my own consciousness.) This should be a clue that All Ain't As It Seems, Virginia.CentralScrutinizer
July 25, 2013
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StephenB: No, actually it’s true. If you begin with a single false premise, competent reasoning will take you progressively away from the truth with each new step.
Neil is essentially right. Here's an example: False premises: 1. Santa Clause exists. 2. Santa brings gifts on Christmas Eve to all good children and puts them under the Christmas tree while the children sleep. 3. Santa does not bring gifts to bad children. Empirical Evidence: 1. There were gifts under my Christmas tree when I woke up on Christmas morning Conclusion: Therefore I must be a good child. The "conclusion" may still be true by accident despite the premises being false.
Neil: While we are on that, notice that there would not be any logical problem in: “The debt of the city of Los Angeles is greater than the debt of the state of California.” Although the city of LA is part of the state of CA, the debt of the city does not count as part of the state debt. So how logic is used really depends a lot on how we form our descriptions, and that often involves unstated rules. SB: If the debt of the city does not count as part of the state debt, then you do not have a whole/part relationship.
Again, I would have to agree with Neil, because "state" can be used equivocally. It can refer to the geography or it can refer to the legal entity known as the "State of California." Los Angeles obviously is located within the geographical boundaries of California. However, the legal entity knows as "The City of Los Angeles" is not a part of the legal entity known as the "State of California." They are independent legal entities that have a different set of accounting books, with differing credits and debits.CentralScrutinizer
July 25, 2013
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Stephen – to avoid the discussion becoming bloated I have selected key sentences from your most recent comment. If you feel that I have omitted something significant feel free to reinsert it.
A contingent being is, by definition, something that does not exist in and of itself and, THEREFORE, depends for its existence upon some other being. Contingency cannot be separated from dependency.
As I said I don’t want to get into a dispute over the meaning of “contingent”. You are welcome to define “contingent” that way.  I am saying is that something may exist without depending on some other being e.g. certain kinds of quantum particle. Whether you want to call such an object contingent is not important.
Have you observed objects of any size appearing without a cause? If not, then the size component would seem to be irrelevant.
No. The objects that appear without cause are quantum particles – really hard for a lay person to observe! 
In effect, you are saying that there is no such thing as a contingent being. That all existent things can exist in and of themselves, which is a contradiction, since we know that all of empirical reality is finite.
All I am saying that some things can exist without a cause (I don’t understand the phrase “exist in and of themselves”). I am not saying all things are of this type. In fact the vast majority are not. I don’t understand why it is a contradiction.
how could you (or a scientist, for that matter) differentiate between those things that are caused and those which are not? Evidence cannot answer that question, of course. It can only tell us which things followed which other things in time.
To answer this properly requires an essay on causality.  Let me just say that on many (most?) occasions we find causes for events but on other occasions we fail to find a cause. While we can never be certain an event is not caused if we fail to find a cause and cannot conceive of a possible cause then we may over time decide there is no cause or we may decide it really doesn’t matter so let’s assume there is no cause and carry on doing science. The point I want to stress  is that quantum science continues quite successfully with the working assumption there are uncaused events including particles coming into being. Therefore the assumption that every that comes into being must have a cause is not essential for science.Mark Frank
July 25, 2013
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